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FIN 200 Final Exam 4

Business / Economics

4/4/13

Asked: 4/4/13 8:35 AM
Opening Offer: $20.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) Corporate governance is the 

 2) Regarding risk levels, financial managers should 

 3) One of the major disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is 

 4) Which of the following would represent a use of funds and, indirectly, a reduction in cash balances? 

 5) Which of the following is an inflow of cash? 

 6) Which account represents the cumulative earnings of the firm since its formation, minus dividends paid? 

 7) A quick ratio that is much smaller than the current ratio reflects 

 8) For a given level of profitability as measured by profit margin, the firm's return on equity will 

 9) The most rigorous test of a firm's ability to pay its short-term obligations is its 

 10) Refer to the figure above. The firm's inventory turnover ratio is 

 11) Refer to the figure above. The firm's debt to asset ratio is 

 12) Refer to the figure above. Megaframe's current ratio is 

 13) The percent-of-sales method of financial forecasting 

 14) In order to estimate production requirements, we 

 15) In the percent-of-sales method, an increase in dividends 

 16) In developing the pro forma income statement we follow four important steps: 

 17) The pro forma income statement is important to the overall process of constructing pro forma statements because it allows us to determine a value for: 

 18) The difference between total receipts and total payments is referred to as 

 19) Financial leverage deals with: 

 20) The degree of operating leverage is computed as 

 21) When a firm employs no debt 

 22) If a firm has a price of $4.00, variable cost per unit of $2.50 and a breakeven point of 20,000 units, fixed costs are equal to: 

 23) In break-even analysis, the contribution margin is defined as 

 24) If TechCor has fixed costs of $80,000, variable costs of $1.20/unit, sales price/unit of $6, and depreciation expense of $25,000, what is their cash breakeven in units? 

 25) When the yield curve is upward sloping, generally a financial manager should: 

 26) Normally, permanent current assets should be financed by 

 27) During tight money periods 

 28) An aggressive working capital policy would have which of following characteristics? 

 29) Risk exposure due to heavy short-term borrowing can be compensated for by 

 30) An aggressive, risk-oriented firm will likely 

 31) The system whereby funds are moved between computer terminals without use of checks is 

 32) The difference between the amount of cash on the firm's books and the amount credited to it by the bank is 

 33) How would electronic funds transfer affect the use of "float"? 

 34) When developing a credit scoring report, many variables would be considered. Which of the following best represent the major factors Dun & Bradstreet would examine? 

 35) The most subjective and also significant segment of the 5 C's of credit for giving final approval is 

 36) The three primary policy variables to consider when extending credit include all of the following except 

 37) Large firms tend to be 

 38) Which of the following is not a true statement about commercial paper? 

 39) Commercial paper that is sold without going through a broker or dealer is known as 

 40) General Rent-All's officers arrange a $50,000 loan. The company is required to maintain a minimum checking account balance of 10% of the outstanding loan. This practice is called 

 41) Firms exposed to the risk of interest rate changes may reduce that risk by 

 42) From the banker's point of view, short-term bank credit is an excellent way of financing 

 43) As the interest rate increases, the present value of an amount to be received at the end of a fixed period 

 44) Increasing the number of periods will increase all of the following except 

 45) As the discount rate becomes higher and higher, the present value of inflows approaches 

 46) If you invest $8,000 at 12% interest, how much will you have in 7 years? 

 47) Ali Shah sets aside 2,000 each year for 5 years. He then withdraws the funds on an equal annual basis for the next 4 years. If Ali wishes to determine the amount of the annuity to be withdrawn each year, he should use the following two tables in this order: 

 48) Mr. Blochirt is creating a college investment fund for his daughter. He will put in $850 per year for the next 15 years and expects to earn an 8% annual rate of return. How much money will his daughter have when she starts college?

FIN 200 Final Exam 3

Business / Economics

4/4/13

Asked: 4/4/13 8:32 AM
Opening Offer: $20.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) What is the primary goal of financial management?

A.        Minimizing risk of the firm

B.        Maximizing shareholder wealth

C.        Increased earnings

D.        Maximizing cash flow

 

2) Regarding risk levels, financial managers should

A.        evaluate investor's desire for risk

B.        focus primarily on market fluctuations

C.        pursue higher risk projects because they increase value

D.        avoid higher risk projects because they destroy value

 

3) Maximization of shareholder wealth is a concept in which

A.        optimally increasing the long-term value of the firm is emphasized.

B.        virtually all earnings are paid as dividends to common stockholders.

C.        increased earnings is of primary importance.

D.        profits are maximized on a quarterly basis.

 

4) An increase in investments in long-term securities will:

A.        decrease cash flow from financing activities.

B.        increase cash flow from financing activities.

C.        increase cash flow from investing activities.

D.        decrease cash flow from investing activities.

 

5) Which of the following is not a primary source of capital to the firm?

A.        bonds

B.        preferred stock

C.        assets

D.        common stock

 

6) The statement of cash flows does NOT include which of the following sections?

A.        cash flows from financing activities

B.        cash flows from investing activities

C.        cash flows from operating activities

D.        cash flows from sales activities

 

7) For a given level of profitability as measured by profit margin, the firm's return on equity will

A.        decrease as its current ratio increases.

B.        decrease as its times-interest-earned ratio decreases.

C.        increase as its debt-to-assets ratio decreases.

D.        increase as its debt-to assets ratio increases.

 

8) In examining the liquidity ratios, the primary emphasis is the firm's

A.        overall debt position.

B.        ability to earn an adequate return.

C.        ability to effectively employ its resources.

D.        ability to pay short-term obligations on time.

 

9) The most rigorous test of a firm's ability to pay its short-term obligations is its

A.        quick ratio.

B.        times-interest-earned ratio.

C.        current ratio.

D.        debt-to-assets ratio.

 

10) A firm has current assets of $75,000 and total assets of $375,000. The firm's sales are $900,000. The firm's fixed asset turnover is

A.        12.0x

B.        5.0x

C.        3.0x  

D.        2.4x

 

11)   Refer to the figure above. The firm's fixed asset turnover ratio is

A.        1.5x.

B.        0.1x.

C.        3.1x.

D.        2x.

 

12)   Refer to the figure above. The firm's inventory turnover ratio is

A.        8x.

B.        0.1x.

C.        10x.  

D.        2.7x.

 

13) In order to estimate production requirements, we

A.        add projected sales in units to desired ending inventory and subtract beginning inventory.

B.        add beginning inventory to desired ending inventory and subtract projected sales in units.

C.        add beginning inventory to projected sales in units and subtract desired ending inventory.

D.        add beginning inventory to desired ending inventory and divide by two.

 

14) The percent-of-sales method of financial forecasting

A.        requires more time than a cash budget approach.

B.        provides a month-to-month breakdown of data.

C.        is more detailed than a cash budget approach.

D.        assumes that balance sheet accounts maintain a constant relationship to sales.

 

15) In general, the larger the portion of a firm's sales that are on credit, the

A.        higher will be the firm's need to borrow.

B.        more the firm can buy raw materials on credit.

C.        lower will be the firm's need to borrow.

D.        more rapidly credit sales will be paid off.

 

16) A firm utilizing LIFO inventory accounting would, in calculating gross profits, assume that

A.        all sales were from beginning inventory.

B.        all sales were for cash.

C.        all sales were from current production.

D.        sales were from current production until current production was depleted, and then use sales from beginning inventory.

 

17) In developing the pro forma income statement we follow four important steps:

a)       compute other expenses,

b)       determine a production schedule,

c)       establish a sales projection,

d)       determine profit by completing the actual pro forma statement.

 

What is the correct order for these four steps?

A.        3,2,4,1

B.        3,2,1,4

C.        1,2,3,4

D.        2,1,3,4

 

18) The difference between total receipts and total payments is referred to as

A.        cash balance.

B.        net cash flow.

C.        beginning cash flow.

D.        cumulative cash flow.

 

19) The degree of operating leverage is computed as

A.        percent change in operating income divided by percent change in volume.

B.        percent change in EPS divided by percent change in operating income.

C.        percent change in volume divided by percent change in operating profit.

D.        percent change in operating profit divided by percent change in net income.

 

20) Firms with a high degree of operating leverage are

A.        trading off higher fixed costs for lower per-unit variable costs.

B.        significantly affected by changes in interest rates.

C.        usually trading off lower levels of risk for higher profits.

D.        easily capable of surviving large changes in sales volume

 

21) The concept of operating leverage involves the use of __________ to magnify returns at high levels of operation.

A.        semi-variable costs

B.        marginal costs

C.        variable costs

D.        fixed costs

 

22) The break-even point can be calculated as

A.        fixed cost divided by contribution margin.

B.        variable cost times contribution margin.

C.        total costs divided by contribution margin.

D.        variable costs divided by contribution margin.

 

23)   Refer to the figure above. This firm's break-even point is

A.        18,000 units

B.        7,142 units

C.        14,634 units

D.        4,800 units

 

24) A firm's break-even point will rise if

 A.        variable cost per unit rises

 B.        price per unit rises

 C.        contribution margins increase

 D.        fixed costs decrease

 

25) Normally, permanent current assets should be financed by

A.        internally generated funds.

B.        borrowed funds.

C.        short-term funds.

D.        long-term funds.

 

26) During tight money periods

A.        the relationship between short and long-term rates remains unchanged.

B.        short-term rates are equal to long-term rates.

C.        short-term rates are higher than long-term rates.

D.        long-term rates are higher than short-term rates.

 

27) A conservatively financed firm would

A.        use long-term financing for permanent current assets and fixed assets and a portion of the short-term fluctuating assets and use short-term financing for all other short-term assets

B.        use equity to finance fixed assets, long-term debt to finance permanent assets, and short-term debt to finance fluctuating current assets.

C.        finance a portion of permanent assets and short-term assets with short-term debt.

D.        use long-term financing for all fixed assets and short-term financing for all other assets.

 

28) Which of the following combinations of asset structures and financing patterns is likely to create the most volatile earnings?

A.        Liquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

B.        Liquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

C.        Illiquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

D.        Illiquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

 

29) Which of the following combinations of asset structures and financing patterns is likely to create the least volatile earnings?

A.        Liquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

B.        Liquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

C.        Illiquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

D.        Illiquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

 

30) Which of the following is not a condition under which a prudent manager would accept some risk in financing?

A.        Easy access to capital markets

B.        Price of inventory is stable

C.        Inventory is highly perishable

D.        Predictable cash-flow patterns

 

31) How would electronic funds transfer affect the use of "float"?

A.        Have no effect on its use

B.        Virtually eliminate its use

C.        Decrease its use somewhat

D.        Increase its use somewhat

 

32) "Float" takes place because

A.        a customer writes "hot" checks.

B.        a lag exists between writing a check and clearing it through the banking system.

C.        the level of cash on the firm's books is equal to the level of cash in the bank.

D.        a firm is early in paying its bills.

 

33) In managing cash and marketable securities, what should be the manager's primary concern?

A.        Maximization of liquid assets

B.        Liquidity and safety

C.        Maximization of profit

D.        Acceptable return on investment

 

34) When developing a credit scoring report, many variables would be considered. Which of the following best represent the major factors Dun & Bradstreet would examine?

A.        The age of the company, the number of employees, the level of current assets.

B.        The company's cash balances, return on equity, and its average tax rates.

C.        The age of the management team, the dollar amount of sales, net profits, and long-term debt.

D.        The financial statements, satisfactory or slow payment experiences, negative public records (suits, liens, judgments, bankruptcies).

 

35) Variables important to credit scoring models include

A.        negative public records.

B.        all of these variables apply.

C.        age of company in years.

D.        facility ownership.

 

36) The three primary policy variables to consider when extending credit include all of the following except

A.        the level of inflation.

B.        collection policy.

C.        credit standards.

D.        the terms of trade.

 

37) Which of the following is not a method for lenders to control pledged inventory?

A.        Trust receipts

B.        Factoring

C.        Blanket inventory liens

D.        Warehousing

 

38) What is generally the largest source of short-term credit small firms?

A.        Commercial paper

B.        Trade credit

C.        Bank loans

D.        Installment loans

 

39) Commercial paper that is sold without going through a broker or dealer is known as

A.        dealer paper.

B.        term paper.

C.        direct paper.

D.        book-entry transactions.

 

40) General Rent-All's officers arrange a $50,000 loan. The company is required to maintain a minimum checking account balance of 10% of the outstanding loan. This practice is called

A.        a compensating balance.

B.        a balloon payment.

C.        an installment loan.

D.        a discounted loan.

 

41) Which method of controlling pledged inventory provides the greatest degree of security to the lender?

A.        Overall inventory liens

B.        Warehousing

C.        Blanket inventory liens

D.        Trust receipts

 

42) Firms exposed to the risk of interest rate changes may reduce that risk by

A.        hedging in the financial futures market.

B.        pledging or factoring accounts receivable.

C.        obtaining a Eurodollar loan.

D.        hedging in the commodities market.

 

43) As the discount rate becomes higher and higher, the present value of inflows approaches

A.        minus infinity

B.        need more information

C.        0

D.        plus infinity

 

44) Increasing the number of periods will increase all of the following except

A.        the present value of $1.

B.        the future value of an annuity.

C.        the present value of an annuity.

D.        the future value of $1.

 

45) In determining the future value of a single amount, one measures

A.        the present value of an amount discounted at a given interest rate.

B.        the present value of periodic payments at a given interest rate.

C.        the future value of periodic payments at a given interest rate.

D.        the future value of an amount allowed to grow at a given interest rate.

 

46) John Doeber borrowed $125,000 to buy a house. His loan cost was 11% and he promised to repay the loan in 15 equal annual payments. How much are the annual payments?

A.        $9,250

B.        $17,383

C.        $3,633

D.        $13,113

 

47) Mr. Blochirt is creating a college investment fund for his daughter. He will put in $850 per year for the next 15 years and expects to earn an 8% annual rate of return. How much money will his daughter have when she starts college?

A.        $23,079

B.        $12,263

C.        $24,003

D.        $11,250

 

48) If you were to put $1,000 in the bank at 6% interest each year for the next ten years, which table would you use to find the ending balance in your account?

A.        Future value of an annuity of $1

B.        Future value of $1

C.        Present value of an annuity of $1

D.        Present value of $1

FIN 200 Final Exam 2

Business / Economics

4/4/13

Asked: 4/4/13 8:30 AM
Opening Offer: $20.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) Maximization of shareholder wealth is a concept in which

A.         profits are maximized on a quarterly basis.

B.         virtually all earnings are paid as dividends to common stockholders.

C.         increased earnings is of primary importance.

D.        optimally increasing the long-term value of the firm is emphasized.

 

 

2) Regarding risk levels, financial managers should

A.        evaluate investor's desire for risk

B.         pursue higher risk projects because they increase value

C.         focus primarily on market fluctuations

D.        avoid higher risk projects because they destroy value

 

3) One of the major disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is

A.         low operating costs.

B.         the simplicity of decision making.

C.         low organizational costs.

D.        that there is unlimited liability to the owner

 

4) The statement of cash flows does NOT include which of the following sections?

A.        cash flows from sales activities

B.         cash flows from investing activities

C.         cash flows from operating activities

D.        cash flows from financing activities

 

5) Which account represents the cumulative earnings of the firm since its formation, minus dividends paid?

A.         Common stock

B.         Accumulated depreciation

C.         Paid-in capital

D.        Retained earnings

 

 

6) Which of the following would represent a use of funds and, indirectly, a reduction in cash balances?

A.         the sale of new bonds by the firm

B.         a decrease in marketable securities

C.         an increase in accounts payable

D.        an increase in inventories

 

 

7) Which of the following is not considered to be a profitability ratio?

A.        times interest earned

B.         return on assets (investment)

C.         profit margin

D.        return on equity

 

 

8) If a firm has both interest expense and lease payments,

A. times interest earned will be the same as fixed charge coverage.

B. times interest earned will be greater than fixed charge coverage.

C. fixed charge coverage cannot be computed.

D. times interest earned will be smaller than fixed charge coverage.

 

9) In examining the liquidity ratios, the primary emphasis is the firm's

A.         overall debt position.

B.         ability to earn an adequate return.

C.         ability to effectively employ its resources.

D.        ability to pay short-term obligations on time.

 

 

10) A firm has current assets of $75,000 and total assets of $375,000. The firm's sales are $900,000. The firm's fixed asset turnover is

A.      5.0x

B.      3.0x

C.      12.0x

D.      2.4x

 

 

11) Refer to the figure above. Megaframe's current ratio is

A.         3.2:1

B.         1.625:1

C.         1.5:1

D.        1.9:1

 

 

12) TEW Company, Refer to the figure above. The firm's inventory turnover ratio is

A.        8x.

B.        0.1x.

C.        10x.  

D.        2.7x.

 

 

13) In financial statements, the number of units shown in cost of goods sold as compared to the number of the units actually produced

A.         is lower.

B.         can be either higher or lower.

C.         is higher.

D.        is the same.

 

14) The percent-of-sales method of financial forecasting

A.         provides a month-to-month breakdown of data.

B.         requires more time than a cash budget approach.

C.         assumes that balance sheet accounts maintain a constant relationship to sales.

D.        is more detailed than a cash budget approach.

 

 

15) The need for an increase or decrease in short-term borrowing can be predicted by

 A.      an income statement.

 B.      a cash budget.

 C.      ratio analysis.

 D.      trend analysis.

 

16) A firm has beginning inventory of 300 units at a cost of $11 each. Production during the period was 650 units at $12 each. If sales were 700 units, what is the cost of goods sold (assume FIFO)?

  A.      $8,100

  B.      $7,700

  C.      $9,000

  D.      $8,000

 

17) The pro forma income statement is important to the overall process of constructing pro forma statements because it allows us to determine a value for:

A.         prepaid expenses.

B.         interest expense.

C.         change in retained earnings.

D.        gross profit.

 

18) A firm utilizing LIFO inventory accounting would, in calculating gross profits, assume that

A. all sales were from beginning inventory.

 B. sales were from current production until current production was depleted, and then use sales from beginning inventory.

 C. all sales were from current production.

 D. all sales were for cash.

 

19) When a firm employs no debt

A.        it will not be profitable.

B.         its operating leverage is equal to its financial leverage.

C.         it has a financial leverage of one.

D.        it has a financial leverage of zero.

 

 

20) The degree of operating leverage is computed as

A.        percent change in operating income divided by percent change in volume.

B.         percent change in EPS divided by percent change in operating income.

C.         percent change in operating profit divided by percent change in net income.

D.        percent change in volume divided by percent change in operating profit.

 

 

21) The concept of operating leverage involves the use of __________ to magnify returns at high levels of operation.

A.         variable costs

B.         marginal costs

C.         fixed costs

D.        semi-variable costs

 

22) In break-even analysis, the contribution margin is defined as

A.         price minus fixed cost.

B.         variable cost minus fixed cost.

C.         price minus variable cost.

D.        fixed cost minus variable cost.

 

23) Refer to the figure above. This firm's break-even point is

A. 7,142 units

B. 4,800 units

C. 18,000 units

D. 14,634 units

 

24) If TechCor has fixed costs of $80,000, variable costs of $1.20/unit, sales price/unit of $6, and depreciation expense of $25,000, what is their cash breakeven in units?

A.         45,833

B.         21,875

C.         9,167

D.        11,458

 

 

25) Kuznets Rental Center requires $1,000,000 in financing over the next two years. Kuznets can borrow long-term at 9 percent interest per year for two years. Alternatively, Kuznets can borrow short-term and pay 7 percent interest in the first year. Then, Kuznets projects paying 10 percent interest in the second year. Assuming Kuznets pays off the accrued interest at the end of each year, which of the following statements is true?

  A. Kuznets will definitely end up paying more under the long-term financing plan.

  B. Kuznets will definitely end up paying less under the long-term financing plan.

  C. Kuznets will probably pay more under the short-term financing plan.

  D. Kuznets will probably pay less under the short-term financing plan.

 

 

26) The theory of the term structure of interest rates which suggests that long-term rates are determined by the average of short-term rates expected over the time that a long-term bond is outstanding is the

A.         segmentation theory.

B.         liquidity premium theory.

C.         expectations hypothesis.

D.        market average rate theory.

 

 

27) Normally, permanent current assets should be financed by

A.         short-term funds.

B.         long-term funds.

C.         borrowed funds.

D.        internally generated funds.

 

 

28) Which of the following is not a condition under which a prudent manager would accept some risk in financing?

  A.      Easy access to capital markets

  B.      Price of inventory is stable

  C.      Inventory is highly perishable

  D.      Predictable cash-flow patterns

 

29) An aggressive working capital policy would have which of following characteristics?

A.         A short average collection period.

B.         A high ratio of short-term debt to long-term sources of funds.

C.         A high ratio of long-term debt to fixed assets.

D.        A low ratio of short-term debt to fixed assets.

 

 

30) Which of the following combinations of asset structures and financing patterns is likely to create the most volatile earnings?

A.         Illiquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

B.         Illiquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

C.         Liquid assets and heavy long-term borrowing

D.        Liquid assets and heavy short-term borrowing

 

31) The system whereby funds are moved between computer terminals without use of checks is

A.         magnetic character recognition.

B.         electronic funds transfer.

C.         float.

D.        a lock-box system.

 

 

32) The difference between the amount of cash on the firm's books and the amount credited to it by the bank is

A.        float.

B.         an overdraft.

C.         interest revenue.

D.        extended disbursement.

 

 

33) "Float" takes place because

A.         the level of cash on the firm's books is equal to the level of cash in the bank.

B.         a firm is early in paying its bills.

C.         a lag exists between writing a check and clearing it through the banking system.

D.        a customer writes "hot" checks.

 

 

 

34) Dun & Bradstreet is known for providing

A.        credit scoring reports that rank a company's payment habits relative to its peer group.

B.         interest rate information to cash managers.

C.         cash management systems to corporate treasurers.

D.        consumer credit reports to credit card companies.

 

 

35) The three primary policy variables to consider when extending credit include all of the following except

A.        the level of inflation.

B.         credit standards.

C.         the terms of trade.

D.        collection policy.

 

 

36) When developing a credit scoring report, many variables would be considered. Which of the following best represent the major factors Dun & Bradstreet would examine?

A.         The company's cash balances, return on equity, and its average tax rates.

B.         The age of the management team, the dollar amount of sales, net profits, and long-term debt.

C.         The age of the company, the number of employees, the level of current assets.

D.        The financial statements, satisfactory or slow payment experiences, negative public records (suits, liens, judgments, bankruptcies).

 

 

37) Which of the following is not a true statement about commercial paper?

A.         Industrial companies, utility firms or finance companies too small to sell direct paper sell dealer paper.

B.         Finance paper is sold directly to the lender by the finance company.

C.         Finance paper is also referred to as direct paper.

D.        Dealer paper is sold directly to the lender by a finance company.

 

38) Commercial paper that is sold without going through a broker or dealer is known as

A.         term paper.

B.         direct paper.

C.         dealer paper.

D.        book-entry transactions.

 

 

39) Which of the following is not a method for lenders to control pledged inventory?

A. Blanket inventory liens

B. Warehousing

C. Factoring

D. Trust receipts

 

 

40) From the banker's point of view, short-term bank credit is an excellent way of financing

A.        seasonal bulges in inventory and receivables.

B.         fixed assets.

C.         repayment of long-term debt.

D.        permanent working capital needs.

 

 

41) Firms exposed to the risk of interest rate changes may reduce that risk by

A.        hedging in the financial futures market.

B.         pledging or factoring accounts receivable.

C.         hedging in the commodities market.

D.        obtaining a Eurodollar loan.

 

42) Trade credit may be used to finance a major part of the firm's working capital when

A.      the firm and the supplier both extend the same credit terms.

B.      the firm extends less liberal credit terms than the supplier.

C.      neither the firm nor the supplier extends credit.

D.      the firm extends more liberal credit terms than the supplier.

 

43) In determining the future value of a single amount, one measures

A.         the present value of an amount discounted at a given interest rate.

B.         the present value of periodic payments at a given interest rate.

C.         the future value of an amount allowed to grow at a given interest rate.

D.        the future value of periodic payments at a given interest rate.

 

 

44) As the discount rate becomes higher and higher, the present value of inflows approaches

A.         need more information

B.         0

C.         plus infinity

D.        minus infinity

 

45) As the compounding rate becomes lower and lower, the future value of inflows approaches

A. 0.

B. the present value of the inflows.

C. infinity.

D. Need more information.

 

46) Ali Shah sets aside 2,000 each year for 5 years. He then withdraws the funds on an equal annual basis for the next 4 years. If Ali wishes to determine the amount of the annuity to be withdrawn each year, he should use the following two tables in this order:

A.         future value of an annuity of $1; future value of a $1

B.         present value of an annuity of $1; future value of an annuity of $1

C.         future value of an annuity of $1; present value of a $1

D.        future value of an annuity of $1; present value of an annuity of $1

 

 

47) If you were to put $1,000 in the bank at 6% interest each year for the next ten years, which table would you use to find the ending balance in your account?

A.         Future value of $1

B.         Future value of an annuity of $1

C.         Present value of an annuity of $1

D.        Present value of $1

 

 

48) John Doeber borrowed $125,000 to buy a house. His loan cost was 11% and he promised to repay the loan in 15 equal annual payments. How much are the annual payments?

    A.      $13,113

    B.      $17,383

    C.      $9,250

    D.      $3,633

FIN 200 Final Exam 1

Business / Economics

4/4/13

Asked: 4/4/13 8:27 AM
Opening Offer: $20.00
Due Date: 12/30/13

1) Maximization of shareholder wealth is a concept in which 

 2) What is the primary goal of financial management? 

 3) One of the major disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is 

 4) The statement of cash flows does NOT include which of the following sections? 

 5) Which of the following is not a primary source of capital to the firm? 

 6) Which account represents the cumulative earnings of the firm since its formation, minus dividends paid? 

 7) The most rigorous test of a firm's ability to pay its short-term obligations is its 

 8) In examining the liquidity ratios, the primary emphasis is the firm's 

 9) Which of the following is not considered to be a profitability ratio? 

 View Full Image

 10) Refer to the figure above. The firm's inventory turnover ratio is 

 View Full Image

 11) Refer to the figure above. Megaframe's current ratio is 

 View Full Image

 12) Refer to the figure above. The firm's debt to asset ratio is 

 13) In general, the larger the portion of a firm's sales that are on credit, the 

 14) In financial statements, the number of units shown in cost of goods sold as compared to the number of the units actually produced 

 15) In order to estimate production requirements, we 

 16) The key initial element in developing pro forma statements is 

 17) A firm has beginning inventory of 300 units at a cost of $11 each. Production during the period was 650 units at $12 each. If sales were 700 units, what is the cost of goods sold (assume FIFO)? 

 18) The difference between total receipts and total payments is referred to as 

 19) The concept of operating leverage involves the use of __________ to magnify returns at high levels of operation. 

 20) Financial leverage deals with: 

 21) When a firm employs no debt 

 22) A firm's break-even point will rise if 

 23) If a firm has a price of $4.00, variable cost per unit of $2.50 and a breakeven point of 20,000 units, fixed costs are equal to: 

 24) In break-even analysis, the contribution margin is defined as 

 26) The theory of the term structure of interest rates which suggests that long-term rates are determined by the average of short-term rates expected over the time that a long-term bond is outstanding is the 

 27) Normally, permanent current assets should be financed by 

 28) Risk exposure due to heavy short-term borrowing can be compensated for by 

 29) An aggressive working capital policy would have which of following characteristics? 

 30) Which of the following combinations of asset structures and financing patterns is likely to create the most volatile earnings? 

 31) "Float" takes place because 

 32) In managing cash and marketable securities, what should be the manager's primary concern? 

 33) How would electronic funds transfer affect the use of "float"? 

 34) Dun & Bradstreet is known for providing 

 35) The three primary policy variables to consider when extending credit include all of the following except 

 36) Variables important to credit scoring models include 

 37) What is generally the largest source of short-term credit small firms? 

 38) Commercial paper that is sold without going through a broker or dealer is known as 

 39) Which of the following is not a true statement about commercial paper? 

 42) Firms exposed to the risk of interest rate changes may reduce that risk by 

 43) As the interest rate increases, the present value of an amount to be received at the end of a fixed period 

 44) In determining the future value of a single amount, one measures 

 45) An annuity may be defined as 

 46) Mr. Blochirt is creating a college investment fund for his daughter. He will put in $850 per year for the next 15 years and expects to earn an 8% annual rate of return. How much money will his daughter have when she starts college? 

 47) If you were to put $1,000 in the bank at 6% interest each year for the next ten years, which table would you use to find the ending balance in your account? 

 48) If you invest $8,000 at 12% interest, how much will you have in 7 years?

MGT350 Week 5 Team Thinking Critically..

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:29 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 5 Team Thinking Critically Simulation

MGT350 Wk 5 Decisions In Paradise Part 3

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:28 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 5 Decisions In Paradise Part 3

MGT350 Week 4 Team Problem formulation..

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:27 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 4 Team Problem formulation and Identification

MGT350 Wk 4 Decisions In Paradise Part 2

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:26 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 4 Decisions In Paradise Part 2

MGT350 Wk 3 Team Problem Formulation a..

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:25 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 3 Team Problem Formulation and Identification

MGT350 Wk 3 Decisions In Paradise Part 1

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:25 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 3 Decisions In Paradise Part 1

MGT350 Wk 2 Team Thinking Decision Mak..

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:24 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 2 Team Thinking Decision Making Paper

MGT350 Week 1 Critical Thinking Paper A+

Business / Economics

12/14/12

Asked: 12/14/12 6:23 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MGT350 Wk 1 Critical Thinking Paper

BUS 475 Final Exam 8

Business / Economics

11/8/12

Asked: 11/8/12 4:43 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The first step in activity-based costing is to __________.

2) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?

3) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.

4) In what situations will a static budget be most effective in evaluating a manager's effectiveness?

5) Sam's Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?

6) The conceptual framework developed by the Financial Accounting Standards Board __________.

7) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:

 Income Statement  Balance Sheet

Dr.                  Cr.        Dr.                 Cr.

Totals               $58,000 $48,000       $34,000           $44,000

The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

8) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?

9) What is value chain management best defined as?

10) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.

11) Multinational corporations __________.

12) A company just starting in business purchased three merchandise inventory items at the following prices. First purchase $80; Second purchase $95; Third purchase $85. If the company sold two units for a total of $240 and used FIFO costing, the gross profit for the period would be _____.

13) "Generally accepted" in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.

14) The major reporting standard for management accounts is __________.

15: A tax on an imported good is called a __________.

16) In economics, the cost of something is __________.

17) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

18) The price of a good that prevails in a world market is called the

19) Lekeisha's income exceeds her expenditures. Lekeisha is a __________.

20) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:

21) When a firm sells a good or a service, the sale contributes to the nation’s income __________.

22) The model of short-run economic fluctuations focuses on the price level and __________.

23) The open-economy macroeconomic model examines the determination of __________.

24) In general, the longest lag for __________.

25) The political business cycle refers to __________.

26) The open-economy macroeconomic model includes __________.

27) In the open-economy macroeconomic model, other things the same, a decrease in the interest rate shifts __________.

28) An invisible barrier that makes it difficult for certain groups, such as minorities and women, to move beyond a certain level in the organizational hierarchy is referred to as the:

29) An organization that is managed aggressively and has growth and high profits as primary objectives may be considered a(n):

30) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:

31) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:

32) __________ is the process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals.

33) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

34) Managers will utilize __________ skills with increasing frequency as they rise within an organization.

35) Which of these represent skills that managers need?

36) Which of the following statements does NOT support Total Quality Management?

37) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?

38) Which of these describes a vision, as it pertains to leadership?

39) The most dominant areas in the global economy include:

40) Which of the following best describes a mental image of a possible and desirable future state of the organization?

41) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:

42) From its 32 regions, the Federal Aviation Administration selects 5 regions, and then randomly audits 20 departing commercial flights in each region for compliance with legal fuel and weight requirements. This is __________.

43) Sampling error can be reduced by __________.

44) In a right-tail test, a statistician came up with a z test statistic of 1.469. What is the p-value?

45) A financial institution wishes to estimate the mean balances owed by its credit card customers. The population standard deviation is estimated to be $300. If a 98 percent confidence interval is used and an interval of ±$75 is desired, how many cardholders should be sampled?

46) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.

For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.

47) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was + .050 Income.

Assuming b1 is significant, if Income decreases by 1000 we would predict that Crime will __________.

48) While glancing over the sensitivity report, you note that the stitching labor has a shadow price of $10 and a lower limit of 24 hours with an upper limit of 36 hours. If your original right hand value for stitching labor was 30 hours, you know that:

49) Companies using lean systems generally have:

50) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?

51) You are faced with a linear programming objective function of:

Max P = $20X + $30Y and constraints of:

 3X + (Constraint A)

 5X – (Constraint B)

You discover that the shadow price for Constraint A is 7.5 and the shadow price for Constraint B is 0. Which of these statements is TRUE?

52) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571.

If we fit a linear trend to data that are growing exponentially __________.

53) It is very difficult to manage data for which of the following reasons?

54) When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate __________.

55) When your purchases are swiped over the bar-code reader at the point-of-sale terminals at Wal-Mart, a _____ records the data.

56) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

57) A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.

58) Which of the following statements about information systems is not correct?

59) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

60) Competitive advantage for an organization manifests as all of the following except:

61) Geocoding is __________.

62) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

63) Given the following annual net cash flows, determine the IRR to the nearest whole percent of a project with an initial outlay of $1,520.

Year Net Cash Flow

1 $1,000

2 $1,500

3 $  500

64) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:

65) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.

66) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?

67) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

68) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

69) Exchange rate risk:

70) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

71) You hold a portfolio with the following securities:

Security Percent of Portfolio Beta Return

X Corporation 20% 1.35 14%

Y Corporation 35% .95 10%

Z Corporation 45% .75 8%

Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.

72) At what rate must $400 be compounded annually for it to grow to $716.40 in 10 years?

73) What is the yield to maturity of a nine-year bond that pays a coupon rate of 20% per year, has a $1,000 par value, and is currently priced at $1,407? Round your answer to the nearest whole percent and assume annual coupon payments.

74) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

75) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

76) When evaluating macro-marketing:

77) "Marketing strategy planning" means:

78) Marketing:

79) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:

80) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:

81) The economists' view of buyers:

82) The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing:

83) When doing "positioning," a marketing manager should:

84) The clustering techniques that can be used in segmenting:

85) Comparing GDP for foreign countries can help a marketing manager evaluate potential markets if the manager remembers that:

86) Good marketing strategy planners know that:

87) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

88) In a criminal proceeding, what is the difference between an indictment and an information?

89) Which of the following is true about the Sherman Act?

90) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

91) The tort of intentional interference with contractual relations requires the following except:

92) Which of the following is correct about interpretive rules?

93) If you are a creditor, your best protection in the event of the debtor’s bankruptcy (including protection from the debtor’s other creditors) is usually obtained if you had previously received:

94) A “closely held corporation” is a corporation that is owned by:

95) Which of the following terms is not required to be disclosed under the Truth-in-Lending Act?

96) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:

97) If a minor wishes to be bound to a contract after becoming an adult, she must:

98) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

99) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

100) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

BUS 475 Final Exam 5

Business / Economics

11/8/12

Asked: 11/8/12 4:41 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?


2) Managerial accounting __________.

   

3) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:  

    Income Statement         Balance Sheet

    Dr.                 Cr.                  Dr.             Cr.

Totals    $58,000        $48,000        $34,000        $44,000

The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

   

4) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?

    

5) The standards and rules that are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting are called __________.

    

6) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company's net income increase?

    

7) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.      


8) Multinational corporations __________.

    

9) What effect do current technology changes have on managerial accounting?

    

10) The cost principle is the basis for preparing financial statements because it is __________.

    

11) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

    

12) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.

    

13) One of Astro Company's activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

    

14) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.

    

15) For a college student who wishes to calculate the true costs of going to college, the costs of room and board __________.

    

16) In computing GDP, market prices are used to value final goods and services because __________.

    

17) In economics, the cost of something is __________.

    

18) A logical starting point from which the study of international trade begins is __________.

    

19) When, in a particular market, the law of demand and the law of supply both apply, the imposition of a binding price ceiling in that market causes quantity demanded to be __________.

    

20) What you give up to obtain an item is called your __________.

     

21) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:

    

22) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.

    

23) In general, the longest lag for __________.

    

24) The model of short-run economic fluctuations focuses on the price level and __________.

    

25) Real GDP __________.

    

26) Consider two items that might be included in GDP: (1) The estimated rental value of owner-occupied housing; and (2) purchases of newly-constructed homes. How are these two items accounted for when GDP is calculated?

    

27) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

    

28) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?

    

29) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:

    

30) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

    

31) When a company establishes technology leadership by pioneering unique products or services that command premium prices, it has benefited from a:

    

32) Sebastian Stabilio just joined a team of people from throughout his organization whose primary task is to recommend valuable uses for the scrap generated in the manufacturing process. The team meets twice per week; otherwise members work within the usual organizational structure. The team, not permanent, which Sebastian has joined, would be considered a:

    

33) An organization that is managed aggressively and has growth and high profits as primary objectives may be considered a(n):

    

34) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:

    

35) ABC International carefully watches the actions of its most innovative competitor and learns from them. ABC can establish a low-cost position by:

    

36) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

    

37) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:

    

38) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:

    

39) Teams that work on long-term projects but disband once the work is completed are known as:

    

40) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

    

41) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.

    

42) A poll showed that 48 out of 120 randomly chosen graduates of California medical schools last year intended to specialize in family practice. What is the width of a 90% confidence interval for the proportion that plan to specialize in family practice?

    

43) Two events are complementary when __________.

    

44) From its 32 regions, the Federal Aviation Administration selects 5 regions, and then randomly audits 20 departing commercial flights in each region for compliance with legal fuel and weight requirements. This is __________.

    

45) Use the following table to answer question:


Are Service provider and county independent events?

    

46) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income.


Assuming b1 is significant, if Income decreases by 1000 we would predict that Crime will __________.

    

47) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours.


In determining the p-value for reporting the study's findings, which of the following is true?

    

48) In lean systems, if a defective product is found, which of the following is generally NOT done?

    

49) Queuing models use an A/B/C notation. What do these variables represent?

   

50) Suppose the estimated quadratic model Yt = 500 + 20 t - t2 is the best-fitting trend of sales of XYZ Inc. using data for the past twenty years (t = 1, 2,.., 20).


Which statement is incorrect?

    

51) While glancing over the sensitivity report, you note that the stitching labor has a shadow price of $10 and a lower limit of 24 hours with an upper limit of 36 hours. If your original right hand value for stitching labor was 30 hours, you know that:

    

52) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571.


Which conclusion is not correct?

    

53) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?    


54) A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.

    

55) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.    


56) What is _____ is not necessarily _____.

    

57) Which of the following is not a source for external data?

    

58) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

   

59) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.

    

60) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

    

61) Which of the following is not a reason that managers need IT support?     


62) Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?

    

63) Exchange rate risk:

    

64) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

    

65) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?

    

66) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?

    

67) At what rate must $400 be compounded annually for it to grow to $716.40 in 10 years?

    

68) Which of the following best represents operating income?

    

69) Given the following annual net cash flows, determine the IRR to the nearest whole percent of a project with an initial outlay of $1,520.

Year           Net Cash Flow

1        $1,000

2        $1,500

3        $  500

    

70) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management?

    

71) Which of the following best represents the stream of income that is available to common stockholders?

    

72) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)

    

73) Dublin International Corporation’s marginal tax rate is 40%. It can issue three-year bonds with a coupon rate of 8.5% and par value of $1,000. The bonds can be sold now at a price of $938.90 each. The underwriters will charge $23 per bond in flotation costs. Determine the appropriate after-tax cost of debt for Dublin International to use in a capital budgeting analysis.

    

74) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.  


75) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

    

76) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.

    

77) Economists' economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.

   

78) The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing:

    

79) Which of the following is a business or organizational customer?

    

80) In an effort to increase its total sales, Champion has started exporting its spark plugs for use by several German auto producers. Champion is pursuing a _____ opportunity.

   

81) "Positioning":

    

82) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

   

83) A cluster analysis of the "toothpaste market" would probably show that:

    

84) Marketing:

    

85) The clustering techniques that can be used in segmenting:

    

86) An Australian wine producer, facing declining sales at home, set up a new channel of distribution to sell wine in the United States. This seems to be an effort at:

    

87) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?

    

88) Bob, an employee of Risky Manufacturing, Inc. is accidentally injured by a fellow worker while working his shift. Under workers’ compensation, Bob can:

    

89) Which of the following statements is not true under the Fair Labor Standards Act?

    

90) The disclosures required under the Truth-in-Lending Act are required for:

    

91) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

    

92) Minimum wages, hours of employment, and child labor are regulated by the:

    

93) An agent’s duty of notification can best be described as a duty to:

    

94) Which of the following is correct about the states’ powers regarding foreign affairs?  


95) Which of the following is true about trademark registration?

    

96) What makes a publicly held corporation different from a public corporation?

    

97) The theory of business social responsibility that holds that a business owes duties solely to produce the highest return for its shareholders is:

    

98) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

    

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

    

100) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

BUS 475 Final Exam 2

Business / Economics

11/8/12

Asked: 11/8/12 4:39 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?


2) One of Astro Company's activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?


3) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?


4) Which one of the following is a product cost?


5) The conceptual framework developed by the Financial Accounting Standards Board __________.


6) What is the preparation of reports for each level of responsibility in the company’s organization chart called?


7) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.


8) If a company reports a net loss, it __________.


9) The major reporting standard for management accounts is __________.


10) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to __________.


11) Managerial accounting __________.


12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.


13) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.


14) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?


15) There are two types of markets in which firms face some competition yet are still able to have some control over the prices of their products. The names given to these market structures are __________.


16) Lekeisha's income exceeds her expenditures. Lekeisha is a __________.


17) A tax on an imported good is called a __________.


18) Lucy starts her own psychiatric practice, but her expenditures to open the practice exceed her income. Lucy is a __________.


19) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:


20) When, in a particular market, the law of demand and the law of supply both apply, the imposition of a binding price ceiling in that market causes quantity demanded to be __________.


21) When a firm sells a good or a service, the sale contributes to the nation’s income __________.


22) The open-economy macroeconomic model includes __________.


23) Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze __________.


24) In the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open economy macroeconomic model, the amount of net capital outflow represents the quantity of dollars __________.


25) Which of the following is not correct?


26) The Federal Reserve will tend to tighten monetary policy when __________.


27) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?


28) The most dominant areas in the global economy include:


29) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:


30) A leader is:


31) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:


32) __________ is the process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals.


33) An organization that is managed aggressively and has growth and high profits as primary objectives may be considered a(n):


34) A manager's ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:


35) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:


36) Having individuals actually do the job they are applying for as a test to see if they can do it is __________.


37) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:


38) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.


39) As related to managing of human resources, diversity refers to:


40) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:


41) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?


42) Jolly Blue Giant Health Insurance (JBGHI) is concerned about rising lab test costs and would like to know what proportion of the positive lab tests for prostate cancer are actually proven correct through subsequent biopsy. JBGHI demands a sample large enough to ensure an error of ± 2% with 90% confidence. What is the necessary sample size?


43) In a right-tail test, a statistician came up with a z test statistic of 1.469. What is the p-value?


44) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.


For this sample, the median is _____.


45) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.


For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.


46) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was + .050 Income.


Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with


 of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and


 of police force in each city (thousands of police)?


47) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours.

In determining the p-value for reporting the study's findings, which of the following is true?


48) In an activity-on-node [AON] network, the nodes represent ____________, whereas the arcs represent ____________.


49) Theoretically, service capacity must exceed demand, lest queues become infinitely long. If capacity does not exceed demand, what is likely to happen?


50) Queuing models use an A/B/C notation. What do these variables represent?


51) In a network diagram, an activity:


52) Suppose the estimated quadratic model + 20 t - t2 is the best-fitting trend of sales of XYZ Inc. using data for the past twenty years (, 2,.., 20).


Which statement is incorrect?


53) Which of the following statements is correct?


54) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?


55) It is very difficult to manage data for which of the following reasons?


56) Success in the _____ phase of the decision making process results in resolving the original problem, and failure leads to a return to previous phases.


57) When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate __________.


58) _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.


59) Geocoding is __________.


60) Information-based industries are most susceptible to which one of Porter’s five forces?


61) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except


62) Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?


63) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)


64) Your company is considering an investment in a project which would require an initial outlay of $300,000 and produce expected cash flows in Years 1 through 5 of $87,385 per year. You have determined that the current after-tax cost of the firm’s capital (required rate of return) for each source of  financing is as follows: 

Cost of debt   8%

Cost of preferred stock   12%

Cost of common stock   16%

Long-term debt currently makes up 20% of the capital structure, preferred stock 10%, and common stock 70%. What is the net present value of this project?


65) The common stockholders are most concerned with:


66) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?


67) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management?


68) At what rate must $400 be compounded annually for it to grow to $716.40 in 10 years?


69) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:


70) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.


71) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:


72) Which of the following represents an attempt to measure the earnings of the firm’s operations over a given time period?


73) Given the following annual net cash flows, determine the IRR to the nearest whole percent of a project with an initial outlay of $1,520.

   Year   Net Cash Flow

1   $1,000

2   $1,500

3   $  500


74) Bell Weather, Inc. has a beta of 1.25. The return on the market portfolio is 12.5%, and the risk-free rate is 5%. According to CAPM, what is the required return on this stock?


75) You hold a portfolio with the following securities:

   Security   Percent of Portfolio          Beta                          Return

X Corporation   20%              1.35                 14%

Y Corporation   35%              .95                   10%

Z Corporation   45%   .          75                      8%

Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.


76) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:


77) Analysis of demographic dimensions:


78) When evaluating macro-marketing:


79) "Marketing strategy planning" means:


A.  finding attractive opportunities and selecting a target market. B.  selecting an attractive marketing mix. C.  selecting a target market and developing a marketing strategy. D.  selecting an attractive target  market. E.  finding attractive opportunities and developing profitable marketing strategies.


80) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.


81) When doing "positioning," a marketing manager should:


82) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:


83) The clustering techniques that can be used in segmenting:


84) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:


85) Comparing GDP for foreign countries can help a marketing manager evaluate potential markets if the manager remembers that:


86) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:


87) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.


88) Justin was hired in February of 2004 as a salesperson. There is no written employment contract, and Justin is paid on a commission basis. Justin’s manager has said to Justin on several occasions that if Justin continues to meet his sales quotas, that the company “will keep him around for a long time.” Justin has always met his sales quotas, but is told one day that they have decided to replace him because he does not project the image that the company wants. If Justin is an at-will employee, which of the following is true?


89) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?


90) Which article of the United States Constitution deals with the judicial power of the federal government?


91) Mary arrived at work one day, and her boss said to her, “That’s the ugliest dress I have ever seen. Because you wore that to work today, you are fired.” Assuming that Mary is an at-will employee, which of the following is true?


92) Which of the following is true about the Sherman Act?


93) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:


94) If you are a creditor, your best protection in the event of the debtor’s bankruptcy (including protection from the debtor’s other creditors) is usually obtained if you had previously received:


95) Which of the following terms is not required to be disclosed under the Truth-in-Lending Act?


96) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?


97) Generally speaking, the contract of a minor:


98) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.


99) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.


100) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

BUS 475 Final Exam 1

Business / Economics

11/8/12

Asked: 11/8/12 4:36 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.

2) "Generally accepted" in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.

3) The standards and rules that are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting are called _______.

4) Sam's Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?

5) Hess, Inc. sells a single product with a contribution margin of $12 per unit and fixed costs of $74,400 and sales for the current year of $100,000. How much is Hess’s break even point? 

6) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?

7) What is the preparation of reports for each level of responsibility in the company’s organization chart called?

8) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company's net income increase?   

9) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.

10) Which one of the following is a product cost?

11) What exists when budgeted costs exceed actual results?

12) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:

                       Income Statement        Balance Sheet

                         Dr.    Cr.                        Dr.    Cr.

Totals        $58,000    $48,000        $34,000    $44,000

Closing entries are necessary for __________.

13) Managerial accounting __________.

14) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?

15) Lekeisha's income exceeds her expenditures. Lekeisha is a __________.

16) Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is __________.

17) A production possibilities frontier will be a straight line if __________. 

18) In economics, the cost of something is __________.   

19) A tax on an imported good is called a __________.

20) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?   

21) In computing GDP, market prices are used to value final goods and services because __________.

22) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct? 

23) Which of the following is not correct?  

24) The part of the balance of payments account that lists all long-term flows of payments is called the:

25) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.

26) In general, the longest lag for __________.

27) Consider two items that might be included in GDP: (1) The estimated rental value of owner-occupied housing; and (2) purchases of newly-constructed homes. How are these two items accounted for when GDP is calculated?

28) Managers will utilize __________ skills with increasing frequency as they rise within an organization.

29) Which of these represent skills that managers need?  

30) Building a dynamic organization is another way of describing which function of management?

31) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?

32) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:

33) A manager's ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:

34) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:

35) Japanese manufacturers' kaizen (continuous improvement) programs enable them to maintain:

36) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:

37) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:

38) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:   

39) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

40) As related to managing of human resources, diversity refers to:   

41) __________ is the process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals.

42) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.

For this sample, the median is _____.

43) Use the following table to answer question:

 P(S | W) is approximately _____.  

44) Use the following table to answer question:

 P(M  A) is approximately _____.

45) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours.

In determining the p-value for reporting the study's findings, which of the following is true?

46) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income.

Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with

Y = number of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and

X = size of police force in each city (thousands of police)?

47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.

For this sample, which measure of central tendency is least representative of the “typical” student?  

48) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?

49) You are faced with a linear programming objective function of:

Max P = $20X + $30Y

and constraints of:

3X + 4Y = 24 (Constraint A)

5X – Y = 18 (Constraint B)

You discover that the shadow price for Constraint A is 7.5 and the shadow price for Constraint B is 0. Which of these statements is TRUE?  

50) A project has three paths. A–B–C has a length of 25 days. A–D–C has a length of 15 days. Finally, A–E–C has a length of 20 days. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

51) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

52) While glancing over the sensitivity report, you note that the stitching labor has a shadow price of $10 and a lower limit of 24 hours with an upper limit of 36 hours. If your original right hand value for stitching labor was 30 hours, you know that:

53) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

54) When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate __________.

55) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.

56) Various organizations that promote fair and responsible use of information systems often develop __________.

57) What is _____ is not necessarily _____.

58) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.

59) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

60) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

61) _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.

62) Geocoding is __________.

63) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?

64) Which of the following represents an attempt to measure the earnings of the firm’s operations over a given time period?

65) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)

66) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

67) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

68) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management? 

69) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

70) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:

71) Your company is considering an investment in a project which would require an initial outlay of $300,000 and produce expected cash flows in Years 1 through 5 of $87,385 per year. You have determined that the current after-tax cost of the firm’s capital (required rate of return) for each source of financing is as follows:

Cost of debt    8%

Cost of preferred stock    12%

Cost of common stock    16%

Long-term debt currently makes up 20% of the capital structure, preferred stock 10%, and common stock 70%. What is the net present value of this project?

72) Suppose you determine that the NPV of a project is $1,525,855. What does that mean?   

73) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

74) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

75) Which of the following best represents operating income?

76) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:   

77) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

78) Comparing GDP for foreign countries can help a marketing manager evaluate potential markets if the manager remembers that:

79) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:

80) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.

81) The "four Ps" of a marketing mix are:

82) When evaluating macro-marketing:

83) A cluster analysis of the "toothpaste market" would probably show that:

84) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.

85) The three basic tasks of ALL managers, according to the text, are:

86) The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing:

 87) When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:

88) Which of the following statements is not true under the Fair Labor Standards Act?

89) Probable cause is most directly associated with which step of the criminal process?   

90) Which of the following statements is generally not true about state intermediate appellate courts?

91) Which of the following terms need not be disclosed under Truth-in-Lending Act?

92) Which of the following activities by an administrative agency requires public notice and participation?   

93) Which of the following is not one of the Caux Round Table Principles for International Business?  

94) The theory of business social responsibility that holds that a business owes duties solely to produce the highest return for its shareholders is:

95) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?

96) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?   

97) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:

98) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

100) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

BUS 475 Final Exam 8 sets

Business / Economics

10/13/12

Asked: 10/13/12 6:08 AM
Opening Offer: $70.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

BUS 475 Final Exam 1

 BUS 475 Final Exam 2

 BUS 475 Final Exam 3

 BUS 475 Final Exam 4

 BUS 475 Final Exam 5

 BUS 475 Final Exam 6

 BUS 475 Final Exam 7

 BUS 475 Final Exam 8

ACC 280 final exam

Business / Economics

10/13/12

Asked: 10/13/12 6:03 AM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/30/12

1) The accounting process is correctly sequenced as

 2) Bookkeeping differs from accounting in that bookkeeping primarily involves which part of the accounting process?

 3) Generally accepted accounting principles are

 4) The private sector organization involved in developing accounting principles is the

 5) GAAP stands for

 6) The four primary financial statements are

 7) Which of the following financial statements is a point in time report?

 8) In recording an accounting transaction in a double-entry system,

 9) An account will have a credit balance if the

 10) Which of the following statements is true?

 11) On June 1, 2008, Leno Inc. buys a copier machine for its business and finances this purchase with cash and a note. When journalizing this transaction, the company's accountant will

 12) Posting of journal entries should be done in

 13) Bank errors

 14) A $2,000 advance payment for a 1-year insurance is recorded as

 15) Carson company purchased a 2-year insurance policy for $4,800 on January 1, 2010. The $4,800 was debited to the Prepaid Insurance account. What adjustment should be made to record expired insurance January 31, 2010?

 16) Can financial statements be prepared directly from the adjusted trial balance?

 17) The information for preparing a trial balance on a worksheet is obtained from

 18) If the total debit column exceeds the total credit column of the income statement columns on a worksheet, then the company has

 19) After all of the account balances have been extended to the income statement columns of the work sheet, the totals of the debit and credit columns are $50,000 and $40,000, respectively. What is the amount of net income or net loss for the period?

 20) The income summary account

 21) Which of the following is an income statement account?

 22) Which of the following is a balance sheet account?

 23) In order to close the dividends account, the

 24) In preparing closing entries,

 25) Profit margin is a measure of

 26) Working capital is

 27) Internal control is defined, in part, as a plan that safeguards

 28) Having one person post entries to accounts receivable subsidiary ledger and a different person post to the Accounts Receivable Control account in the general ledger is an example of

 29) Certified Public Accounting firms that audit public companies are reviewed by

 30) The entity responsible for setting International Accounting Standards is

ACC 561 Final Exam Solutions in St..

Business / Economics

9/15/12

Asked: 9/15/12 10:30 AM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/30/12

.1) The statement of cash flows is used for _____. 

2) Nonoperating items on the income statement _____. 

3) The difference between a single-step and multiple-step income statement is that a single-step income statement _____. 

4) Which one of the following statements is true? 

5) The _____ accounting convention uses the acquisition cost minus depreciation in valuing an asset on the balance sheet. 

6) A new corporation issuing a common, no-par value stock for cash would include a journal entry a debit to _____. 

7) Which type of organization would most likely have work-in-process inventory? 

8) _____ is a measure of income or profit divided by the investment required to obtain that income or profit. 

9) The following information is available for the Peter Company: 
Sales: $150,000 
Invested capital: $156,250 
ROI: 10% 
The return on sales is _____. 

10) The following information is available for the Peter Company: 
Sales: $500,000 
Invested capital: $312,500 
ROI: 10% 
The return on sales is _____. 

11) Company A’s revenues are $300 on invested capital of $240. Expenses are currently 70% of sales. If Angelo Company can reduce its capital investment by 20% in Company A, return on investment will be _____. 


12) When the variable costing method is used, fixed factory overhead appears on the income statement as a _____. 

13) In absorption costing, costs are separated into the major categories of _____. 

14) _____ is another term for variable costing. 

15) Budgeted service department cost rates protects the user departments from _____. 

16) _____ is an example of the external financial-reporting purpose of the cost management systems. 

17) The level of sales at which revenues equal expenses and net income is zero is called the _____. 

18) Output measures of both resources and activities are _____. 

19) The break-even point is where _____. 

20) _____ budgeting is when budgets are formulated with the active participation of all affected employees. 

21) _____ is the logical integration of management accounting tools to gather and report data and to evaluate performance. 

22) _____ are components of a master budget. 

23) An important factor considered by sales forecasters is _____. 

24) _____ models are mathematical models of the master budget that can react to any set of assumptions about sales, costs, and product mix. 

25) Which of the following is an objective of budgeting? 

26) An organization's budget program should be used 

27) The activity-based costing may reveal _________, whereas traditional costing cannot. 

28) _____ is a method of approximating cost functions. 

29) In relation to a cost function, the term reliability refers to _____. 

30) One of the simplest methods to measure a linear cost function from past data is the _____.

BUS 475 Final Exam 3

Business / Economics

9/14/12

Asked: 9/14/12 4:36 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:

        Income Statement        Balance Sheet

    Dr.    Cr.        Dr.    Cr.

Totals        $58,000    $48,000        $34,000    $44,000

To enter the net income (or loss) for the period into the above worksheet requires an entry to the __________.

 2) Multinational corporations __________.

   3) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.

 4) What is value chain management best defined as?

 5) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to __________.

 6) In what situations will a static budget be most effective in evaluating a manager's effectiveness?

 7) Which one of the following is a product cost?

 8) These are selected account balances on December 31, 2008.    

Land (location of the corporation's office building)    $100,000

Land (held for future use)    150,000

Corporate Office Building    600,000

Inventory    200,000

Equipment    450,000

Office Furniture    100,000

Accumulated Depreciation    300,000

What is the net amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

 9) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?

 10) If a company reports a net loss, it __________.

 11) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company's net income increase?

   12) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.

   13) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

   14) Managerial accounting __________.

 15) A logical starting point from which the study of international trade begins is __________.

  16) Without trade, __________.

   17) Assume oligopoly firms are profit maximizers, they do not form a cartel, and they take other firms' production levels as given. Then in equilibrium the output effect __________.

   18) To move the allocation of resources closer to the social optimum, policymakers should typically try to induce firms in an oligopoly to __________.

 19) When, in a particular market, the law of demand and the law of supply both apply, the imposition of a binding price ceiling in that market causes quantity demanded to be __________.

 20) If a price ceiling is a binding constraint on the market, __________.

 21) A tax on an imported good is called a __________.

 22) The political business cycle refers to __________.

 23) Real GDP __________.

 24) The model of short-run economic fluctuations focuses on the price level and __________.

 25) In the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open economy macroeconomic model, the amount of net capital outflow represents the quantity of dollars __________.

 26) The open-economy macroeconomic model examines the determination of __________.

 27) The balance of payment account is made up of:

 28) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:

   29) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?

 30) ABC International carefully watches the actions of its most innovative competitor and learns from them. ABC can establish a low-cost position by:

 31) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.

   32) A manager's ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:

   33) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:

 34) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

 35) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:

 36) Managers will utilize __________ skills with increasing frequency as they rise within an organization.

 37) As related to managing of human resources, diversity refers to:

   

38) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:

 39) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?

 40) Which of these represent skills that managers need?

 41) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:

 42) Which of the following statements is true?

A.   The sum of two mutually exclusive events is one. B.   If event (A) occurs, then its complement (A') will also occur. C.   If A and B are independent events, the P(B) = P(A) P(B). D.   The probability of A and its complement (A') will always sum to one.

   43) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours.

In a left-tailed test at  = .05 we would __________.

   

44) A poll showed that 48 out of 120 randomly chosen graduates of California medical schools last year intended to specialize in family practice. What is the width of a 90% confidence interval for the proportion that plan to specialize in family practice? A.   ± .07357

   

45) Use the following table to answer question:

 P(S | W) is approximately _____.

   

46) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.

For this sample, which measure of central tendency is least representative of the “typical” student?

 

47) In a right-tail test, a statistician came up with a z test statistic of 1.469. What is the p-value?

 

48) In lean systems, if a defective product is found, which of the following is generally NOT done?

   

49) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571.

Which conclusion is not correct?

 

50) In statistical process control a p-chart could __________.

 

51) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

 

52) Which one of the following statements about managerial inputs to production and staffing plans is best?

 

53) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

  

54) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.

   

55) Which of the following statements is correct?

 

56) In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”

 

57) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

 

58) Which of the following is not a reason that managers need IT support?

 

59) _____ is a process that helps organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, transfer, and apply expertise that are part of the organization’s memory and typically reside inside the organization in an unstructured manner.

 

60) Information-based industries are most susceptible to which one of Porter’s five forces?

 

61) _____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.

 

62) _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.

 

63) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

 

64) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

 

65) Which of the following best represents operating income?

 

66) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management?

 

   

67) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

 

68) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.

 

69) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

 

70) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

 

71) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)

 

72) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

 

73) Exchange rate risk:

 

74) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:

 

75) Which of the following best represents the stream of income that is available to common stockholders?

 

76) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?

 

77) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:

 

78) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.

 

79) The "four Ps" of a marketing mix are:

 

80) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

 

81) The economists' view of buyers:

 

82) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.

 

83) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:

 

84) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:

 

85) An Australian wine producer, facing declining sales at home, set up a new channel of distribution to sell wine in the United States. This seems to be an effort at:

 

86) The three basic tasks of ALL managers, according to the text, are:

 

87) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

 

88) Which of the following is correct about interpretive rules?

 

89) To be guilty of monopolization, the defendant must:

 

90) The tort of intentional interference with contractual relations requires the following except:

 

91) The tort of palming off involves:

   

92) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

   

93) An agent’s duty of notification can best be described as a duty to:

 

94) Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship of law and ethics?

 

95) Which of the following is true about “proof of claims?”

   

96) An agent’s obligation to perform in accordance with the terms of the agency arrangement is the agent’s duty of:

 

97) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?

 

98) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

 

99) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

 

100) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

BUS 475 Final Exam 4

Business / Economics

9/14/12

Asked: 9/14/12 4:15 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.

 2) "Generally accepted" in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.

 3) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals: 

        Income Statement        Balance Sheet

    Dr.    Cr.        Dr.    Cr.

Totals        $58,000    $48,000        $34,000    $44,000

The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

4) These are selected account balances on December 31, 2008. 

Land (location of the corporation's office building)    $150,000

Land (held for future use)    225,000

Corporate Office Building    900,000

Inventory    300,000

Equipment    675,000

Office Furniture    150,000

Accumulated Depreciation    450,000

What is the net amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

 

5) The first step in activity-based costing is to __________.

 6) Hess, Inc. sells a single product with a contribution margin of $12 per unit and fixed costs of $74,400 and sales for the current year of $100,000. How much is Hess’s break even point?

7) Sam's Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?

8) These are selected account balances on December 31, 2008. 

Land (location of the corporation's office building)    $100,000

Land (held for future use)    150,000

Corporate Office Building    600,000

Inventory    200,000

Equipment    450,000

Office Furniture    100,000

Accumulated Depreciation    300,000

What is the net amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

 9) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals: 

        Income Statement        Balance Sheet

    Dr.    Cr.        Dr.    Cr.

Totals        $58,000    $48,000        $34,000    $44,000

 

Closing entries are necessary for __________.

 10) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?

11) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.

    12) One of Astro Company's activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

 

13) The cost principle is the basis for preparing financial statements because it is __________.

 

14) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

15) To move the allocation of resources closer to the social optimum, policymakers should typically try to induce firms in an oligopoly to __________.

16) Assume oligopoly firms are profit maximizers, they do not form a cartel, and they take other firms' production levels as given. Then in equilibrium the output effect __________.

 

17) The price of a good that prevails in a world market is called the

 

18) A country's consumption possibilities frontier can be outside its production possibilities frontier if __________.

 

19) When, in a particular market, the law of demand and the law of supply both apply, the imposition of a binding price ceiling in that market causes quantity demanded to be __________.

 

20) If a binding price ceiling were imposed in the computer market, __________.

 

21) For a college student who wishes to calculate the true costs of going to college, the costs of room and board __________.

 

22) In the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open economy macroeconomic model, the amount of net capital outflow represents the quantity of dollars __________.

 

23) The part of the balance of payments account that records the amount of foreign currency the government buys or sells is the:

 

24) The balance of payment account is made up of:

 

25) The model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply explains the relationship between __________.

 

26) The open-economy macroeconomic model includes __________.

 

27) The principal lag for monetary policy __________.

 

28) Which of the following best describes a mental image of a possible and desirable future state of the organization?

 

29) Sebastian Stabilio just joined a team of people from throughout his organization whose primary task is to recommend valuable uses for the scrap generated in the manufacturing process. The team meets twice per week; otherwise members work within the usual organizational structure. The team, not permanent, which Sebastian has joined, would be considered a:

 

30) An invisible barrier that makes it difficult for certain groups, such as minorities and women, to move beyond a certain level in the organizational hierarchy is referred to as the:

 

31) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:

 

32) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

 

33) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:

 

34) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:

 

35) A manager's ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:

 

36) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.

 

37) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?

 

38) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

 

39) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:

 

40) __________ is the process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals.

 

41) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

 

42) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income. 

Assuming b1 is significant, if Income decreases by 1000 we would predict that Crime will __________.

 

43) Sampling error can be reduced by __________.

 

44) Use the following table to answer question: 

 P(M  A) is approximately _____.

 

45) Use the following table to answer question: 

 Are Service provider and county independent events?

 

46) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 

For this sample, which measure of central tendency is least representative of the “typical” student?

 

47) Jolly Blue Giant Health Insurance (JBGHI) is concerned about rising lab test costs and would like to know what proportion of the positive lab tests for prostate cancer are actually proven correct through subsequent biopsy. JBGHI demands a sample large enough to ensure an error of ± 2% with 90% confidence. What is the necessary sample size?

 

48) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

 

49) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?

 

50) The one-worker, multiple machines approach functions as:

 

51) In an activity-on-node [AON] network, the nodes represent ____________, whereas the arcs represent ____________.

 

52) While glancing over the sensitivity report, you note that the stitching labor has a shadow price of $10 and a lower limit of 24 hours with an upper limit of 36 hours. If your original right hand value for stitching labor was 30 hours, you know that:

 

53) The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.

 

54) In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”

 

55) A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.

 

56) What is _____ is not necessarily _____.

 

57) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

 

58) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

 

59) _____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.

 

60) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

 

 

61) Which of the following are not provided by digital dashboards?

 

62) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.

 

63) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

 

64) Your company is considering an investment in a project which would require an initial outlay of $300,000 and produce expected cash flows in Years 1 through 5 of $87,385 per year. You have determined that the current after-tax cost of the firm’s capital (required rate of return) for each source of financing is as follows: 

Cost of debt    8%

Cost of preferred stock    12%

Cost of common stock    16%

Long-term debt currently makes up 20% of the capital structure, preferred stock 10%, and common stock 70%. What is the net present value of this project?

 

65) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

 

66) Bell Weather, Inc. has a beta of 1.25. The return on the market portfolio is 12.5%, and the risk-free rate is 5%. According to CAPM, what is the required return on this stock?

 

67) Dublin International Corporation’s marginal tax rate is 40%. It can issue three-year bonds with a coupon rate of 8.5% and par value of $1,000. The bonds can be sold now at a price of $938.90 each. The underwriters will charge $23 per bond in flotation costs. Determine the approximate after-tax cost of debt for Dublin International to use in a capital budgeting analysis.

 

68) Forward rates are quoted:

 

69) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?

 

70) Suppose you determine that the NPV of a project is $1,525,855. What does that mean?

 

71) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.

 

72) Exchange rate risk:

 

73) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

 

74) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management?

 

75) You hold a portfolio with the following securities: 

    Security    Percent of Portfolio    Beta    Return

X Corporation    20%    1.35    14%

Y Corporation    35%    .95    10%

Z Corporation    45%    .75    8%

Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.

 

76) Economists' economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.

 

77) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?

 

78) The three basic tasks of ALL managers, according to the text, are:

 

79) A cluster analysis of the "toothpaste market" would probably show that:

 

80) "Marketing strategy planning" means:

 

81) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

 

82) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:

 

83) The economists' view of buyers:

 

84) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.

 

85) When evaluating macro-marketing:

 

86) Marketing:

 

87) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.

 

88) Product disparagement differs from defamation of a nonpublic figure in that:

 

89) Mary arrived at work one day, and her boss said to her, “That’s the ugliest dress I have ever seen. Because you wore that to work today, you are fired.” Assuming that Mary is an at-will employee, which of the following is true?

 

90) Which of the following is correct about interpretive rules?

 

91) In responding to a constitutional challenge to the Computer Decency Act, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that:

 

92) In a criminal proceeding, what is the difference between an indictment and an information?

 

93) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?

 

94) If a minor wishes to be bound to a contract after becoming an adult, she must:

 

95) Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship of law and ethics?

 

96) Information which comes to the knowledge of an agent is:

 

97) Which of the following is true about “proof of claims?”

 

98) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

 

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

 

100) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

BUS 475 Final Exam 7

Business / Economics

9/13/12

Asked: 9/13/12 9:25 AM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.

2) Managerial accounting __________.

3) What effect do current technology changes have on managerial accounting?

4) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals: 

Income Statement     Balance Sheet

Dr.                  Cr.                   Dr.                  Cr.

Totals              $58,000           $48,000           $34,000           $44,000
The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

5) "Generally accepted" in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles _______.

6) If a company reports a net loss, it __________.

7) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?

8) The first step in activity-based costing is to ________.

9) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

10) What exists when budgeted costs exceed actual results?

11) Which list below best describes the major services performed by public accountants?

12) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.

13) Sam's Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?

14) A company just starting in business purchased three merchandise inventory items at the following prices. First purchase $80; Second purchase $95; Third purchase $85. If the company sold two units for a total of $240 and used FIFO costing, the gross profit for the period would be _____.

15) Lucy starts her own psychiatric practice, but her expenditures to open the practice exceed her income. Lucy is a __________.

16) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

17) A logical starting point from which the study of international trade begins is __________.

18) In computing GDP, market prices are used to value final goods and services because __________.

19) Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is __________.

20) To move the allocation of resources closer to the social optimum, policymakers should typically try to induce firms in an oligopoly to __________.

21) Resources are __________.

22) Many U.S. business leaders argue that the current state of U.S. net exports is the result of __________.

23) The balance of payment account is made up of:

24) Real GDP __________.

25) The model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply explains the relationship between __________.

26) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.

27) Over the past two decades, the United States has __________.

28) ABC International carefully watches the actions of its most innovative competitor and learns from them. ABC can establish a low-cost position by:

29) A leader is:

30) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

31) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:

32) A manager's ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:

33) An invisible barrier that makes it difficult for certain groups, such as minorities and women, to move beyond a certain level in the organizational hierarchy is referred to as the:

34) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

35) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?

36) Which of these represent skills that managers need?

37) Teams that work on long-term projects but disband once the work is completed are known as:

38) Building a dynamic organization is another way of describing which function of management?

39) When a company establishes technology leadership by pioneering unique products or services that command premium prices, it has benefited from a:

40) The most dominant areas in the global economy include: 

41) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:

42) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 
For this sample, the median is _____.

43) A poll showed that 48 out of 120 randomly chosen graduates of California medical schools last year intended to specialize in family practice. What is the width of a 90% confidence interval for the proportion that plan to specialize in family practice?

44) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income. 
Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with
of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and
of police force in each city (thousands of police)?

45) In a random sample of 810 women employees, it is found that 81 would prefer working for a female boss. The width of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion of women who prefer a female boss is _____.

46) Independent events A and B would be consistent with which of the following statements:

 

47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 
For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.

48) In lean systems, if a defective product is found, which of the following is generally NOT done?

49) In a network diagram, an activity:

50) Which is not a tool of statistical quality control?

51) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571. 
If we fit a linear trend to data that are growing exponentially __________.

52) The one-worker, multiple machines approach functions as:

53) Zappos built the majority of its information systems using which of the following?

54) Search engines and metasearch engines are examples of which network application?

55) In the _____ phase of the decision making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”

56) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.

57) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.

58) Which of the following are not provided by digital dashboards?

59) A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use _____.

60) Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?

61) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

62) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

63) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:

64) Suppose you determine that the NPV of a project is $1,525,855. What does that mean?

65) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

66) Dublin International Corporation’s marginal tax rate is 40%. It can issue three-year bonds with a coupon rate of 8.5% and par value of $1,000. The bonds can be sold now at a price of $938.90 each. The underwriters will charge $23 per bond in flotation costs. Determine the approximate after-tax cost of debt for Dublin International to use in a capital budgeting analysis.

67) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.

68) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?

69) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

70) Exchange rate risk:

71) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.

72) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

73) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:

74) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

75) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

76) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:

77) "Marketing strategy planning" means:

78) A cluster analysis of the "toothpaste market" would probably show that:

79) When doing "positioning," a marketing manager should:

80) Economists' economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.

81) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

82) When evaluating macro-marketing:

83) "Positioning":

84) Coca-Cola is taking advantage of the new willingness of Chinese leaders to engage in international trade by marketing its soft drinks in China. What type of opportunity is Coke pursuing?

85) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:

86) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

87) The clustering techniques that can be used in segmenting:

88) Which of the following terms need not be disclosed under Truth-in-Lending Act?

89) The tort of intentional interference with contractual relations requires the following except:

90) Which of the following is correct about litigating commercial disputes?

91) Which of the following activities by an administrative agency requires public notice and participation?

92) What type of commercial speech did the U.S. Supreme Court say was protected in the Greater New Orleans Broadcasting Association, Inc. v. United States case?

93) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?

94) Information which comes to the knowledge of an agent is:

95) A professional corporation is one that:

96) What makes a publicly held corporation different from a public corporation?

97) A “closely held corporation” is a corporation that is owned by:

98) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

100) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

BUS 475 Final Exam 6

Business / Economics

9/13/12

Asked: 9/13/12 7:22 AM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?

 

2) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be______.

 

3) A company just starting in business purchased three merchandise inventory items at the following prices. First purchase $80; Second purchase $95; Third purchase $85. If the company sold two units for a total of $240 and used FIFO costing, the gross profit for the period would be _____.

 

4) The major reporting standard for management accounts is __________.

 

5) The standards and rules that are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting are called _______.

 

6) Managerial accounting __________.

 

7) Hess, Inc. sells a single product with a contribution margin of $12 per unit and fixed costs of $74,400 and sales for the current year of $100,000. How much is Hess’s break even point?

 

8) These are selected account balances on December 31, 2008. 

What is the net amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

 

9) Which one of the following is a product cost?

 

10) One of Astro Company's activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

 

11) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals: 

Income Statement                 Balance Sheet

Dr.                  Cr                    .Dr                  .Cr.

Totals

$58,000           $48,000           $34,000            $44,000

The net income (or loss) for the period is __________.

 

12) Multinational corporations __________.

 

13) What exists when budgeted costs exceed actual results?

 

14) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to __________.

 

15) A logical starting point from which the study of international trade begins is __________.

 

16) Resources are __________.

 

17) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

 

18) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:

 

19) If a binding price ceiling were imposed in the computer market, __________.

 

20) The general term for market structures that fall somewhere in-between monopoly and perfect competition is __________.

 

21) A rational decision maker __________.

 

22) The political business cycle refers to __________.

 

23) Real GDP __________.

 

24) The part of the balance of payments account that lists all long-term flows of payments is called the:

 

25) In general, the longest lag for __________.

 

26) The balance of payment account is made up of:

 

27) Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze _______.

 

28) An organization that is managed aggressively and has growth and high profits as primary objectives may be considered a(n):

 

29) Which of these describes a vision, as it pertains to leadership?

 

30) As related to managing of human resources, diversity refers to:

 

31) Which of the following best describes a mental image of a possible and desirable future state of the organization?

 

32) A leader is:

 

33) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:

 

34) Building a dynamic organization is another way of describing which function of management?

 

35) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:

 

36) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

 

37) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.

 

38) Having individuals actually do the job they are applying for as a test to see if they can do it is _______.

 

39) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?

 

40) Managers will utilize __________ skills with increasing frequency as they rise within an organization.

 

41) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:

 

42) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18. 
For this sample, which measure of central tendency is least representative of the “typical” student?

 

43) From its 32 regions, the Federal Aviation Administration selects 5 regions, and then randomly audits 20 departing commercial flights in each region for compliance with legal fuel and weight requirements. This is __________.

 

44) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours. 
In determining the
 p-value for reporting the study's findings, which of the following is true?

 

45) A financial institution wishes to estimate the mean balances owed by its credit card customers. The population standard deviation is estimated to be $300. If a 98 percent confidence interval is used and an interval of ±$75 is desired, how many cardholders should be sampled?

 

46) A poll showed that 48 out of 120 randomly chosen graduates of California medical schools last year intended to specialize in family practice. What is the width of a 90% confidence interval for the proportion that plan to specialize in family practice?

 

47) Use the following table to answer question: 
P(MA) is approximately _____.

 

48) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

 

49) Suppose the estimated quadratic model Yt = 500 + 20 t - t2 is the best-fitting trend of sales of XYZ Inc. using data for the past twenty years (t = 1, 2,.., 20). 
Which statement is
 incorrect?

 

50) You are faced with a linear programming objective function of: 
 Max P = $20X + $30Y
 
and constraints of:
 
 3X + (Constraint A)
 
 5X – (Constraint B)
 
You discover that the shadow price for Constraint A is 7.5 and the shadow price for Constraint B is 0. Which of these statements is TRUE?

 

51) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

 

52) Queuing models use an A/B/C notation. What do these variables represent?

 

53) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

 

54) Networks enable which of the following applications?

 

55) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

 

56) Zappos built the majority of its information systems using which of the following?

 

57) When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate __________.

 

58) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

 

59) A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use _____.

 

60) Which of the following statements about information systems is not correct?

 

61) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

 

62) Competitive advantage for an organization manifests as all of the following except:

 

63) Mortgage bonds:

 

64) Which of the following represents an attempt to measure the earnings of the firm’s operations over a given time period?

 

65) You hold a portfolio with the following securities: 

                        Percent

   Security            of Portfolio                   Beta     Return

X Corporation      20%                             1.35       14%

Y Corporation      35%                             0.95       10%

Z Corporation      45%                             0.75       8%

 

Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.

 

66) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

 

67) What is the yield to maturity of a nine-year bond that pays a coupon rate of 20% per year, has a $1,000 par value, and is currently priced at $1,407? Round your answer to the nearest whole percent and assume annual coupon payments.

 

68) Your company is considering an investment in a project which would require an initial outlay of $300,000 and produce expected cash flows in Years 1 through 5 of $87,385 per year. You have determined that the current after-tax cost of the firm’s capital (required rate of return) for each source of financing is as follows: 

Long-term debt currently makes up 20% of the capital structure, preferred stock 10%, and common stock 70%. What is the net present value of this project?

 

69) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

 

70) A stock with a beta greater than 1.0 has returns that are _____ volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta of less than 1.0 exhibits returns which are _____ volatile than those of the market portfolio.

 

71) The common stockholders are most concerned with:

 

72) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?

 

73) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)

 

74) Which of the following best represents operating income?

 

75) Given the following annual net cash flows, determine the IRR to the nearest whole percent of a project with an initial outlay of $1,520. 

 

76) Coca-Cola is taking advantage of the new willingness of Chinese leaders to engage in international trade by marketing its soft drinks in China. What type of opportunity is Coke pursuing?

 

77) When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:

 

78) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?

 

79) Analysis of demographic dimensions:

 

80) Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:

 

81) "Positioning":

 

82) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

 

83) The "four Ps" of a marketing mix are:

 

84) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

 

85) Comparing GDP for foreign countries can help a marketing manager evaluate potential markets if the manager remembers that:

 

86) An Australian wine producer, facing declining sales at home, set up a new channel of distribution to sell wine in the United States. This seems to be an effort at:

 

87) Which of the following is a business or organizational customer?

 

88) Probable cause is most directly associated with which step of the criminal process?

 

89) Justin was hired in February of 2004 as a salesperson. There is no written employment contract, and Justin is paid on a commission basis. Justin’s manager has said to Justin on several occasions that if Justin continues to meet his sales quotas, that the company “will keep him around for a long time.” Justin has always met his sales quotas, but is told one day that they have decided to replace him because he does not project the image that the company wants. If Justin is an at-will employee, which of the following is true?

 

90) In a criminal proceeding, what is the difference between an indictment and an information?

 

91) Under Section 2 of the Sherman Act, rather than making a presumption whether monopoly power exists, the courts will examine all the facts and circumstances to determine whether monopoly power exists when the defendant holds between _____ percent and _____ percent of the relevant market:

 

92) Which of the following is true about the Sherman Act?

 

93) Which of the following is correct with regard to the relationship between law and ethics?

 

94) What is the major convention that provides international protection to patents?

 

95) For which of the following kinds of intellectual property is a filing or registration required in order to receive protection?

 

96) The Houston-based energy company that filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy and whose business conduct is one of the grossest examples of corporate greed and fraud in America was:

 

97) Which of the following is true about trademark registration?

 

98) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

 

99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

 

100) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

ACC 544 Final Exam

Business / Economics

9/11/12

Asked: 9/11/12 5:42 PM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/30/12

1) Which is NOT one of the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct principles?

   A.   The public interest

  B.   Integrity

  C.   Quality control

  D.   Scope and nature of services

 

2) The ethical philosophy that considers the consequences of similar persons acting under similar circumstances is called

   A.   utilitarian principle.

  B.   imperative principle.

  C.   categorical imperative.

  D.   generalization argument.

 

3) The fundamental issues in independence require that the auditor avoid

  A.   financial connections with the client and financial connections with the client's competitors.

 B.   acting as management and representing the shareholder’s interests.

 C.   responsibility for the client's internal control and subordinating judgment concerning audit issues.

 D.   financial connections with the firm and acting as management.

 

4) Auditors have greater liability under the Securities Act of 1933. Which is the reason that this greater liability exists?

   A.   The auditor is liable for treble damages under the Securities Act of 1933.

  B.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that the financial statements were misstated.

  C.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that they relied on the financial statements.

  D.   The plaintiff does not have to prove that there were damages.

 

5) The legal doctrine that states that a successful plaintiff may recover the full amount of damages from any defendant that has the ability to pay is called

A)        Joint and several liability.

B)        Proportionate liability.

C)        Complete liability.

D)        Total liability.

 

6) The SEC regulation that governs disclosures in annual reports other than financial statements is the

   A.   Securities Act of 1933.

  B.   Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

  C.   Regulation S-X.

  D.   Regulation S-K.

 

7) Inspection of tangible assets provides evidence for which assertion?

  A.   Existence and occurrence

  B.   Completeness

  C.   Rights and obligations

  D.   Presentation and disclosure

 

8) The risk that the auditor may provide an inappropriate opinion based on their review of materially misstated financial statements is referred to as

   A.   audit risk.

  B.   detection risk.

  C.   information risk.

  D.   business risk.

 

9) Auditors perform the steps in which order?

 A.   Determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and set materiality.

 B.   Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

 C.   Set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and determine audit risk.

 D.   Determine audit risk; set materiality; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

 

10) An internal control questionnaire (ICQ) contains the question: "Does a single individual receive and list ca to sales and general ledgers?" What action must an auditor take if the manager of accounting responds yes to the

  A.   No action is required because yes responses on an ICQ indicate the presence of good control.

  B.   Statistically sample the response along with all other yes responses to verify their accuracy.

  C.   Treat it as a potential control weakness and perform appropriate testing.

  D.   Include it with other reportable findings in the next audit report.

 

11) In addition to gaining an understanding of the internal controls, an external auditor, at minimum, is expect

 A.   evaluate the internal auditors' work as an important part of the accounting system element of the inter

 B.   observe client employees to determine the extent of their compliance with quality control standards.

 C.   trace a few transactions through the control process to obtain evidence that the controls have been pla

 D.   study organization charts to obtain an understanding of the informal lines of communication.

 

12) Which method provides the auditor with the best visual grasp of a system and a means for analyzing complex operations?

  A.   A flowcharting approach

  B.   A matrix approach

  C.   A questionnaire approach

  D.   A detailed narrative approach

  

13) Which of the accounts is NOT included in the revenue and collection cycle?

  A.   Cash in bank

  B.   Raw materials

  C.   Accounts receivable

  D.   Bad debt expense

 

14) The most reliable evidence comes from

  A.   a positive confirmation.

  B.   a blank confirmation.

  C.   a negative confirmation.

  D.   examining a sales invoice.

 

15) Custody is transferred from the warehouse to the shipping department upon authorization of the

  A.   shipping order.

  B.   purchase order.

  C.   customer order.

  D.   invoice.

 

16) An enlightened management may decrease the probability of fraud in the company best by

 A.   restricting authority for profit objective determination to top management.

 B.   stressing negative observations on their work to increase performance.

 C.   measuring performance and awarding bonuses on the basis of short-term operating results.

 D.   establishing work teams that share responsibilities, performance, and bonuses based on collective effor

 

17) A proof of cash is normally used

  A.   for all engagements.

  B.   when control risk for cash is low.

  C.   to test the transactions process when controls over cash are weak.

  D.   when lapping is suspected.

 

18) Which is an appropriate audit program step for the review of canceled checks for authorized signatures?

 A.   Compare the check date with the first cancellation date.

 B.   Examine a representative sample of signed checks, and determine that the signatures are authorized in the corporate signature book.

 C.   Determine that all checks are to be signed by an individual authorized by the board.

 D.   Confirm the signatures from a sample of checks directly with the bank.

 

19) The production authorization starts with a

  A.   purchase order.

  B.   sales forecast.

  C.   production plan.

  D.   bill of materials.

 

20) Which is NOT recognized by GAAP as appropriate for determining inventory cost?

  A.   FIFO

  B.   Weighted average

  C.   LIFO

  D.   Standard costs

 

21) Inventory must be recorded when

  A.   the company has title to it.

  B.   the related revenue is recognized.

  C.   it is received.

  D.   it is shipped from the vendor.

  

22) Canceling invoices with a paid stamp after payment is a control that relates to which assertion?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Rights and obligations

  C.   Completeness

  D.   Valuation or allocations

 

23) Which is NOT a step in the search for unrecorded liabilities?

  A.   Examine the open purchase order file.

  B.   Examine the unmatched receiving reports.

  C.   Examine disbursements for the period immediately before the end of the period.

  D.   All of these are steps in the search.

 

24) Which control question relates to the existence and occurrence objective in purchasing and accounts payable?

 A.   Are the purchase order forms prenumbered and is the numerical sequence checked for missing documents?

 B.   Does the chart of accounts and accounting manual provide instructions for classifying debit entries?

 C.   Does the accounting department check invoices for mathematical accuracy?

 D.   Are receiving reports prepared for each item received?

 

 25) The audit objective that all transactions and accounts that should be presented in the financial statements are included is related to which assertion?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Presentation and disclosure

  C.   Rights and obligations

  D.   Completeness

 

26) Which best describes the main reason independent auditors report on management's financial statements?

 A.   A management fraud may exist, and it is likely to be detected by independent auditors.

 B.   The management that prepares the statements may have a poorly designed system of internal control.

 C.   The management that prepares the statements and ther persons who use the statements may have conflicting interests.

 D.   Misstated account balances may be corrected as the result of the independent audit work.

 

27) The audit objective that all footnotes have been included in the financial statements is related most closely to which assertation?

  A.   Existence or occurrence

  B.   Presentation and disclosure

  C.   Rights and obligations

  D.   Completeness

ACC 280 final exam

Business / Economics

9/9/12

Asked: 9/9/12 4:21 PM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The accounting process is correctly sequenced as

A.  identification, communication, recording

B.  recording, communication, identification

C.  identification, recording, communication

D.  communication, recording, identification

   

2) Bookkeeping differs from accounting in that bookkeeping primarily involves which part of the accounting process?

A.  Identification

B.  Communication

C.  Recording

D.  Analysis

 

3) Generally accepted accounting principles are

A.  income tax regulations of the Internal Revenue Service

B.  standards that indicate how to report economic events

C.  theories that are based on physical laws of the universe

D.  principles that have been proven correct by academic researchers

   

4) The private sector organization involved in developing accounting principles is the

A.  Feasible Accounting Standards Body

B.  Financial Accounting Studies Board

C.  Financial Accounting Standards Board

D.  Financial Auditors' Standards Body

 

5) GAAP stands for

A.  Generally Accepted Auditing Procedures

B.  Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

C.  Generally Accepted Auditing Principles

D.  Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures

   

6) The four primary financial statements are

A.  the general ledger, the working trial balance, the general journal and the balance sheet

B.  the balance sheet, the working trial balance, the income statement and the statement of cash flows

C.  the cash account, the statement of stockholder’s equity, the year-end worksheet, and the balance sheet

D.  the balance sheet, the income statement, the statement of stockholder’s equity and the statement of cash flows

   

7) Which of the following financial statements is a point in time report?

A.  Balance sheet

B.  Income statement

C.  Statement of stockholder's equity

D.  Statement of cash flows

 

8) In recording an accounting transaction in a double-entry system,

A.  the number of debit accounts must equal the number of credit accounts

B.  there must always be entries made on both sides of the accounting equation

C.  the amount of the debits must equal the amount of the credits

D.  there must only be two accounts affected by any transaction

 

9) An account will have a credit balance if the

A.  credits exceed the debits

B.  first transaction entered was a credit

C.  debits exceed the credits

D.  last transaction entered was a credit

 

10) Which of the following statements is true?

A.  Debits increase assets and increase liabilities.

B.  Credits decrease assets and decrease liabilities.

C.  Credits decrease assets and increase liabilities.

D.  Debits decrease liabilities and decrease assets.

 

11) On June 1, 2008, Leno Inc. buys a copier machine for its business and finances this purchase with cash and a note. When journalizing this transaction, the company's accountant will

A.  use two journal entries

B.  make a compound entry

C.  make a simple entry

D.  list the credit entries first, which is proper form for this type of transaction acc 280 final exam

   

12) Posting of journal entries should be done in

A.  account number order

B.  alphabetical order

C.  chronological order

D.  dollar amount order

 

13) Bank errors

A.  occur because of time lags

B.  must be corrected by debits

C.  are infrequent in occurrence

D.  are corrected by making an adjusting entry on the depositor's books

   

14) A $2,000 advance payment for a 1-year insurance is recorded as

A.  Insurance expense $2,000              Cash $2,000

B.  Cash $2,000                                  Insurance expense $2,000

C.  Prepaid insurance $2,000              Cash $2,000

D.  Prepaid insurance $2,000              Insurance expense $2,000

   

15) Carson company purchased a 2-year insurance policy for $4,800 on January 1, 2010. The $4,800 was debited to the Prepaid Insurance account. What adjustment should be made to record expired insurance January 31, 2010?

A.  Debit insurance expense and credit prepaid insurance for $2,400.

 B.  Debit prepaid insurance and credit insurance expense for $200.

C.  Debit prepaid insurance and credit insurance expense for $400.

D.  Debit insurance expense and credit prepaid insurance for $200.

           

16) Can financial statements be prepared directly from the adjusted trial balance?

A.  No, they cannot. The general ledger must be used.

B.  Yes, adjusting entries have been recorded in the general journal and posted to the ledger accounts.

C.  No, the adjusted trial balance merely proves the equality of the total debit and total credit balances in the ledger after adjustments are posted. It has no other purpose.

D.  Yes, they can because that is the only reason that an adjusted trial balance is prepared.

 

17) The information for preparing a trial balance on a worksheet is obtained from

A.  financial statements

B.  general ledger accounts

C.  general journal entries

D.  business documents acc280 final exam

 

18) If the total debit column exceeds the total credit column of the income statement columns on a worksheet, then the company has

A.  earned net income for the period

B.  an error because debits do not equal credits

C.  suffered a net loss for the period

D.  to make an adjusting entry

 

19) After all of the account balances have been extended to the income statement columns of the work sheet, the totals of the debit and credit columns are $50,000 and $40,000, respectively. What is the amount of net income or net loss for the period?

A.  $10,000 net income

 B.  $10,000 net loss

C.  $50,000 net income

D.  $90,000 net income

 

20) The income summary account

A.  is a permanent account

B.  appears on the balance sheet

C.  appears on the income statement

D.  is a temporary account

 

21) Which of the following is an income statement account?

A.  Revenue

B.  Salaries payable

C.  Cash

D.  Accounts payable

   

22) Which of the following is a balance sheet account?

A.  Sales revenue

B.  Salaries payable

C.  Salaries expense

D.  Service revenue

 

23) In order to close the dividends account, the

A.  income summary account should be debited

B.  income summary account should be credited

C.  retained earnings account should be credited

D.  retained earnings account should be debited

 

24) In preparing closing entries,

A.  each revenue account will be credited

B.  each expense account will be credited

C.  the retained earnings account will be debited if there is net income for the period

D.  the dividends account will be debited

 

25) Profit margin is a measure of

A.  liquidity

B.  profitability

C.  solvency

D.  risk

 

26) Working capital is

A.  net income divided by sales

B.  current assets minus current liabilities

C.  current assets divided by current liabilities

D.  total debt divided by total assets

 

27) Internal control is defined, in part, as a plan that safeguards

A.  all balance sheet accounts

B.  assets

C.  liabilities

D.  capital stock

 

28) Having one person post entries to accounts receivable subsidiary ledger and a different person post to the Accounts Receivable Control account in the general ledger is an example of

A.  inadequate internal control

B.  duplication of effort

C.  external verification

D.  segregation of duties

 

29) Certified Public Accounting firms that audit public companies are reviewed by

A.  The Securities and Exchange Commission

B.  The American Institute of Certified Public Auditors

C.  The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board

D.  The Financial Auditing Standards Board

 

30) The entity responsible for setting International Accounting Standards is

A.  The Financial Accounting Standards Board

B.  The International Monetary Fund

C.  The International Accounting Standards Board

D.  The Financial Accounting Foundation

FIN 534 quiz 4 Week 5

Business / Economics

8/29/12

Asked: 8/29/12 12:58 PM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/30/12

FIN 534 Quiz 4

 Question 1

Assume that in recent years both expected inflation and the market risk premium (rM− rRF) have declined.  Assume also that all stocks have positive betas.  Which of the following would be most likely to have occurred as a result of these changes?

 

1)      The required returns on all stocks have fallen, but the decline has been greater for stocks with lower betas.

2)      The required returns on all stocks have fallen, but the fall has been greater for stocks with higher betas

3)      The average required return on the market, rM, has remained constant, but the required returns have fallen for stocks that have betas greater than 1.0

4)      Required returns have increased for stocks with betas greater than 1.0 but have declined for stocks with betas less than 1.0

5)      The required returns on all stocks have fallen by the same amount

 

 

Question 2

Assume that the risk-free rate is 5%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) If a stock has a negative beta, its required return under the CAPM would be less than 5%.

2) If a stock's beta doubled, its required return under the CAPM would also double.

3) If a stock's beta doubled, its required return under the CAPM would more than double.

4) If a stock's beta were 1.0, its required return under the CAPM would be 5%.

5) If a stock's beta were less than 1.0, its required return under the CAPM would be less than 5%.

 

 

Question 3

Which of the following statements is most correct?

 

a. If you add enough randomly selected stocks to a portfolio, you can completely eliminate all the market risk from the portfolio.

b. If you form a large portfolio of stocks each with a beta greater than 1.0, this portfolio will have more market risk than a single stock with a beta = 0.8.

c. Company-specific (or unsystematic) risk can be reduced by forming a large portfolio, but normally even highly-diversified portfolios are subject to market (or systematic) risk.

d. All of the statements above are correct.

e. Statements b and c are correct.

 

Question 4

A highly risk-averse investor is considering adding one additional stock to a 3-stock portfolio, to form a 4-stock portfolio. The three stocks currently held all have b = 1.0, and they are perfectly positively correlated with the market. Potential new Stocks A and B both have expected returns of 15%, are in equilibrium, and are equally correlated with the market, with r = 0.75. However, Stock A's standard deviation of returns is 12% versus 8% for Stock B. Which stock should this investor add to his or her portfolio, or does the choice not matter?

 

1) Either A or B, i.e., the investor should be indifferent between the two

2) Stock A

3) Stock B

4) Neither A nor B, as neither has a return sufficient to compensate for risk

5) Add A, since its beta must be lower

 

 

Question 5

Stock X has a beta of 0.5 and Stock Y has a beta of 1.5.  Which of the following statements must be true, according to the CAPM?

 

If you invest $50,000 in Stock X and $50,000 in Stock Y, your 2-stock portfolio will have a beta significantly lower than 1.0, provided the returns on the two stocks are not perfectly correlated.

 Stock Y's return during the coming year will be higher than Stock X's return.

 If expected inflation increases but the market risk premium is unchanged, the required returns on the two stocks will increase by the same amount.

 Stock Y's return has a higher standard deviation than Stock X.

 If the market risk premium declines, but the risk-free rate is unchanged, Stock X will have a larger decline in its required return than will Stock Y.

 

 

Question 6

During the coming year, the market risk premium (rM − rRF), is expected to fall, while the risk-free rate, rRF, is expected to remain the same.  Given this forecast, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

a. The required return will increase for stocks with a beta less than 1.0 and will decrease for stocks with a

 beta greater than 1.0.

 b. The required return on all stocks will remain unchanged.

c. The required return will fall for all stocks, but it will fall more for stocks with higher betas.

d. The required return for all stocks will fall by the same amount.

e. The required return will fall for all stocks, but it will fall less for stocks with higher betas

 

Question 7

Stock A's beta is 1.5 and Stock B's beta is 0.5.  Which of the following statements must be true, assuming the CAPM is correct.

 

1) Stock A's beta is 1.5 and Stock B's beta is 0.5.  Which of the following statements must be true, assuming the CAPM is correct.

2) In equilibrium, the expected return on Stock B will be greater than that on Stock A

3) When held in isolation, Stock A has more risk than Stock B

4) Stock B would be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than A

5) In equilibrium, the expected return on Stock A will be greater than that on B

 

 

 Question 8

Bob has a $50,000 stock portfolio with a beta of 1.2, an expected return of 10.8%, and a standard deviation of 25%. Becky has a $50,000 portfolio with a beta of 0.8, an expected return of 9.2%, and her standard deviation is also 25%. The correlation coefficient, r, between Bob's and Becky's portfolios is zero. Bob and Becky are engaged to be married. Which of the following best describes their combined $100,000 portfolio?

 

a. The combined portfolio's expected return will be less than the simple weighted average of the expected returns of the two individual portfolios, 10.0%.

 b. The combined portfolio's beta will be equal to a simple weighted average of the betas of the two individual portfolios, 1.0; its expected return will be equal to a simple weighted average of the expected returns of the two individual portfolios, 10.0%; and its standard deviation will be less than the simple average of the two portfolios' standard deviations, 25%.

c. The combined portfolio's expected return will be greater than the simple weighted average of the expected returns of the two individual portfolios, 10.0%.

d. The combined portfolio's standard deviation will be greater than the simple average of the two

 portfolios' standard deviations, 25%.

e. The combined portfolio's standard deviation will be equal to a simple average of the two portfolios' standard deviations, 25%.

 

 

Question 9

 Stock A's beta is 1.5 and Stock B's beta is 0.5.  Which of the following statements must be true about these securities?  (Assume market equilibrium.)

 

a. When held in isolation, Stock A has more risk than Stock B.

 b. Stock B must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than A.

c. Stock A must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than B.

d. The expected return on Stock A should be greater than that on B.

e. The expected return on Stock B should be greater than that on A.

 

 

Question 10

For a portfolio of 40 randomly selected stocks, which of the following is most likely to be true?

 

a. The riskiness of the portfolio is greater than the riskiness of each of the stocks if each was held in

isolation.

 b. The riskiness of the portfolio is the same as the riskiness of each stock if it was held in isolation.

c. The beta of the portfolio is less than the average of the betas of the individual stocks.

d. The beta of the portfolio is equal to the average of the betas of the individual stocks.

e. The beta of the portfolio is larger than the average of the betas of the individual stocks.

 

 

Question 11

 Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Bob has a $50,000 stock portfolio with a beta of 1.2, an expected return of 10.8 percent, and a standard deviation of 25 percent.  Melissa has a $50,000 portfolio with a beta of 0.8, and expected return of 9.2 percent, and a standard deviation of 25 percent.  The correlation coefficient, r, between Bob’s and Melissa’s portfolio is 0.   Which of the following best describes their combined $100,000 portfolio?

 

1 The combined portfolios expected return is a simple average of the expected returns of the two individual portfolios (10%).

2 The combined portfolio’s beta is a simple average of the betas of the two individual portfolios (1.0).

3 The combined portfolios’ standard deviation is less than a simple average of the two portfolios’ standard deviations (25%), even though there is no correlation between the returns of the two portfolios.

4 Statements a and b are correct.

5 All of the statements above are correct.

Question 12

 You have the following data on three stocks:

 

                                Stock                Standard Deviation                 Beta

                                   A                               20%                             0.59

                                   B                               10%                             0.61

                                   C                               12%                             1.29

 

If you are a strict risk minimizer, you would choose Stock ____ if it is to be held in isolation and Stock ____ if it is to be held as part of a well-diversified portfolio.

 

a. A; A.

 b. A; B.

c. B; A.

d. C; A.

e. C; B.

 

 

 Question 13

Stock A has a beta of 0.8, Stock B has a beta of 1.0, and Stock C has a beta of 1.2.  Portfolio P has equal amounts invested in each of the three stocks.  Each of the stocks has a standard deviation of 25%.  The returns on the three stocks are independent of one another (i.e., the correlation coefficients all equal zero).  Assume that there is an increase in the market risk premium, but the risk-free rate remains unchanged.  Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

a. Portfolio P's expected return is greater than the expected return on Stock B.

 b. Portfolio P's expected return is equal to the expected return on Stock A.

c. Portfolio P's expected return is less than the expected return on Stock B.

d. Portfolio P's expected return is equal to the expected return on Stock B.

e. Portfolio P's expected return is greater than the expected return on Stock C.

 

 

 Question 14

 Which is the best measure of risk for a single asset held in isolation, and which is the best measure for an asset held in a diversified portfolio?

 

a. Variance; correlation coefficient.

 b. Standard deviation; correlation coefficient.

c. Beta; variance.

d. Coefficient of variation; beta.

e. Beta; beta.

 

 

 Question 15

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

If a company has two classes of common stock, Class A and Class B, the stocks may pay different dividends, but under all state charters the two classes must have the same voting rights.

The preemptive right gives stockholders the right to approve or disapprove of a merger between their company and some other company.

 The preemptive right is a provision in the corporate charter that gives common stockholders the right to purchase (on a pro rata basis) new issues of the firm's common stock.

 The stock valuation model, P0= D1/(rs - g), cannot be used for firms that have negative growth rates.

 The stock valuation model, P0= D1/(rs - g), can be used only for firms whose growth rates exceed their required returns

 

Question 16

If in the opinion of a given investor a stock’s expected return exceeds its required return, this suggests that the investor thinks

 

a.         the stock is experiencing supernormal growth.

b.         the stock should be sold.

c.         the stock is a good buy.

d.         management is probably not trying to maximize the price per share.

e.         dividends are not likely to be declared.

 

 

Question 17

 The preemptive right is important to shareholders because it

 

a. Allows management to sell additional shares below the current market price.

b. Protects the current shareholders against dilution of ownership interests.

c. Is included in every corporate charter.

d. The preemptive right is not important to shareholders.

 

 

Question 18

Stocks X and Y have the following data.  Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

                                                           X                      Y 

Price                                                 $25                  $25

Expected dividend yield                   5%                   3%

Required return                               12%                 10%

a. Stock Y pays a higher dividend per share than Stock X.

b. Stock X pays a higher dividend per share than Stock Y.

c. One year from now, Stock X should have the higher price.

d. Stock Y has a lower expected growth rate than Stock X.

e. Stock Y has the higher expected capital gains yield.

 

 Question 19

Companies can issue different classes of common stock. Which of the following statements concerning stock classes is CORRECT?

 

 1) All common stocks fall into one of three classes: A, B, and C.

2)  All common stocks, regardless of class, must have the same voting rights.

3)  All firms have several classes of common stock.

4)  All common stock, regardless of class, must pay the same dividend.

5)  Some class or classes of common stock are entitled to more votes per share than other classes

 

 

 Question 20

The required returns of Stocks X and Y are rX = 10% and rY = 12%.  Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 If the market is in equilibrium, and if Stock Y has the lower expected dividend yield, then it must have the higher expected growth rate.

 If Stock Y and Stock X have the same dividend yield, then Stock Y must have a lower expected capital gains yield than Stock X.

 If Stock X and Stock Y have the same current dividend and the same expected dividend growth rate, then Stock Y must sell for a higher price.

 The stocks must sell for the same price.

 Stock Y must have a higher dividend yield than Stock X.

 

 

 

 Question 21

Stocks A and B have the following data.  Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

                                                            A                      B 

Price                                                 $25                  $40

Expected growth                               7%                   9%

Expected return                               10%                 12%

 

The two stocks should have the same expected dividend.

The two stocks could not be in equilibrium with the numbers given in the question.

A's expected dividend is $0.50.

B's expected dividend is $0.75.

A's expected dividend is $0.75 and B's expected dividend is $1.20.

 

 

 Question 22

Stocks X and Y have the following data.  Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

                                                           X                      Y 

Price                                                 $30                  $30

Expected growth (constant)              6%                   4%

Required return                               12%                 10%

 

Stock X has a higher dividend yield than Stock Y.

 Stock Y has a higher dividend yield than Stock X.

 One year from now, Stock X’s price is expected to be higher than Stock Y’s price.

 Stock X has the higher expected year-end dividend.

 Stock Y has a higher capital gains yield.

 

 Question 23

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

The constant growth model is often appropriate for evaluating start-up companies that do not have a stable history of growth but are expected to reach stable growth within the next few years.

 If a stock has a required rate of return rs = 12% and its dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5%, this implies that the stock’s dividend yield is also 5%.

 The stock valuation model, P0 = D1/(rs - g), can be used to value firms whose dividends are expected to decline at a constant rate, i.e., to grow at a negative rate.

 The price of a stock is the present value of all expected future dividends, discounted at the dividend growth rate.

 The constant growth model cannot be used for a zero growth stock, where the dividend is expected to remain constant over time.

 

 Question 24

Stocks A and B have the same price and are in equilibrium, but Stock A has the higher required rate of return. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1)  Stock B must have a higher dividend yield than Stock A.

2) If Stock A has a lower dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be higher than Stock B’s.

3)  Stock A must have both a higher dividend yield and a higher capital gains yield than Stock B.

4) If Stock A has a higher dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be lower than Stock B’s.

5) Stock A must have a higher dividend yield than Stock B.

 

 

 Question 25

Stocks A and B have the following data.  Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

                                                            A                      B 

Required return                               10%                 12%

Market price                                     $25                  $40

Expected growth                               7%                   9%

 

If Stock A has a lower dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be higher than Stock B’s.

Stock B must have a higher dividend yield than Stock A.

Stock A must have a higher dividend yield than Stock B.

If Stock A has a higher dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be lower than Stock B’s.

Stock A must have both a higher dividend yield and a higher capital gains yield than Stock B.

 

 

 Question 26

An increase in a firm’s expected growth rate would cause its required rate of return to

 

increase.

decrease.

fluctuate less than before.

fluctuate more than before.

possibly increase, possibly decrease, or possibly remain constant.

 

 

 

 

Question 27

If markets are in equilibrium, which of the following conditions will exist?

 

A) Each stock's expected return should equal its realized return as seen by the marginal investor.

B) Each stock's expected return should equal its required return as seen by the marginal investor.

C) All stocks should have the same expected return as seen by the marginal investor.

D) The expected and required returns on stocks and bonds should be equal.

E) All stocks should have the same realized return during the coming year.

 

 

 Question 28

Two constant growth stocks are in equilibrium, have the same price, and have the same required rate of return. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

 

1) The two stocks must have the same dividend per share.

2) If one stock has a higher dividend yield, it must also have a lower dividend growth rate.

3) If one stock has a higher dividend yield, it must also have a higher dividend growth rate.

4) The two stocks must have the same dividend growth rate.

5) The two stocks must have the same dividend yield.

 

 

 Question 29

For a stock to be in equilibrium, that is, for there to be no long-term pressure for its price to depart from its current level, then

the expected future return must be less than the most recent past realized return.

 

The past realized return must be equal to the expected return during the same period.

 the required return must equal the realized return in all periods.

 the expected return must be equal to both the required future return and the past realized return.

 the expected future returns must be equal to the required return.

 

 

 Question 30

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming stocks are in equilibrium?

 

 1) The dividend yield on a constant growth stock must equal its expected total return minus its expected capital gains yield.

2) Assume that the required return on a given stock is 13%. If the stock’s dividend is growing at a constant rate of 5%, its expected dividend yield is 5% as well.

3) A stock’s dividend yield can never exceed its expected growth rate.

4) A required condition for one to use the constant growth model is that the stock’s expected growth rate exceeds its required rate of return.

5) Other things held constant, the higher a company’s beta coefficient, the lower its required rate of return.

Question 5 Design an application in..

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:29 PM
Opening Offer: $10.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Question 5

Design an application in which you declare an array of five numbers and store five values in the array. Write a try block in which you loop to display each successive element of the array, increasing a subscript by one on each pass through the loop. Assume you are working with a language that automatically creates an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException when a subscript is not correct for an array. Create a catch block that catches the exception if it is generated and displays the message, "Now you've gone too far."

Question 4 Design a class named

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:25 PM
Opening Offer: $12.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Question 4

Design a class named

CustomerRecord that holds a customer number, name, and address. Include methods to set the values for each data field and output the values for each data field. Create the class diagram and write the pseudocode that defines the class.

Question 3 Design a program that allo..

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:23 PM
Opening Offer: $10.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Question 3

Design a program that allows a user to enter 10 numbers, then displays them in the reverse order of their entry. You must use an Array as your data structure.

Question 2 What screen output does..

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:22 PM
Opening Offer: $10.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Question 2

What screen output does the following code segment produce?

p = 2

q = 4

while p < q

Output "Adios"

r = 1

while r < q

output "Adios"

r = r + 1

endwhile

p = p + 1

endwhile

What is the screen output of the follo..

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:20 PM
Opening Offer: $10.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Question 1

What is the screen output of the following code segment? Explain the reasoning behind your answer.

Test1 = 70

Test2 = 98

Test3 = 84

NumberOfTests = 3

Average = (Test1 + Test2 + Test3) / NumberOfTests

IF Average >= 90 THEN

Output "Great job"

Output "Your average is: ", Average

ELSE

IF Average >= 80 or Average <=89 THEN

Output "Nice work"

Output "Your average is: ", Average

ELSE

Output "You will better next time!"

ENDIF

Exersis 1 - Short Answer

Computers and Technology

8/26/12

Asked: 8/26/12 4:17 PM
Opening Offer: $15.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Exersis 1 - Short Answer

1. What is an advantage of using an integrated development environment?

2. What operator has the lowest precedence?

3. In pseudocode, a(n) ____ statement is used to clearly show where the selection structure ends.

4. A structure that includes separate actions when an expression is true and when it is false is called a(n) ____ structure.

5. In a flowchart or in pseudocode, you can use the symbol that mathematicians use to mean "not equal," ____.

6. Programmers must be careful to use the correct ____ in the statement that controls a loop.

7. Programmers use the term "____" to describe programs that are well designed and easy to understand and maintain.

8. A(n) ____ is a series or list of variables in computer memory, all of which have the same name and data type but are differentiated with special numbers called subscripts.

9. Every array has a(n) ____ size.

10. Users enter incorrect data frequently; a good program should be able to handle the mistake and not allow the ____ to be out of bounds.

11. Modularization provides ____.

12. Programmers say that variables and constants declared within a method are ____ only after declaration within that method.

13. ____ variables and constants are those that are known to an entire class.

14. Programmers refer to hidden implementation details as existing in a ____.

15. A methodÂ's name and parameter list constitute the methodÂ's ____.

16. You can indicate that a method parameter must be an array by placing ____ after the data type in the methodÂ's parameter list.

17. An ____ is the adjective that defines the type of access that outside classes will have to the attribute or method.

18. A(n) ____ is a method that establishes an object, reserving enough memory space for it and providing its name.

19. In some programming languages, such as C#, Visual Basic, and Java, every class you create is a child of one ultimate base class, often called the ____ class.

20. A(n) ____ constructor is one that requires no arguments.

21. A subclass constructor can pass ____ or parameters to its parent constructor.

22. The object-oriented techniques to manage errors such as dividing a value by 0 comprise the group of methods known as ____.

23. Methods are flexible partly because they are ____.

24. The memory location known as the ____ is where the computer stores the list of method locations to which the system must return.

25. When appropriate, specialized ____ classes provide an elegant way for you to handle error situations.

Programming Essential

Computers and Technology

8/25/12

Asked: 8/25/12 9:01 PM
Opening Offer: $30.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Exersis 1 - Short Answer

1. What is an advantage of using an integrated development environment?

2. What operator has the lowest precedence?

3. In pseudocode, a(n) ____ statement is used to clearly show where the selection structure ends.

4. A structure that includes separate actions when an expression is true and when it is false is called a(n) ____ structure.

5. In a flowchart or in pseudocode, you can use the symbol that mathematicians use to mean "not equal," ____.

6. Programmers must be careful to use the correct ____ in the statement that controls a loop.

7. Programmers use the term "____" to describe programs that are well designed and easy to understand and maintain.

8. A(n) ____ is a series or list of variables in computer memory, all of which have the same name and data type but are differentiated with special numbers called subscripts.

9. Every array has a(n) ____ size.

10. Users enter incorrect data frequently; a good program should be able to handle the mistake and not allow the ____ to be out of bounds.

11. Modularization provides ____.

12. Programmers say that variables and constants declared within a method are ____ only after declaration within that method.

13. ____ variables and constants are those that are known to an entire class.

14. Programmers refer to hidden implementation details as existing in a ____.

15. A methodÂ's name and parameter list constitute the methodÂ's ____.

16. You can indicate that a method parameter must be an array by placing ____ after the data type in the methodÂ's parameter list.

17. An ____ is the adjective that defines the type of access that outside classes will have to the attribute or method.

18. A(n) ____ is a method that establishes an object, reserving enough memory space for it and providing its name.

19. In some programming languages, such as C#, Visual Basic, and Java, every class you create is a child of one ultimate base class, often called the ____ class.

20. A(n) ____ constructor is one that requires no arguments.

21. A subclass constructor can pass ____ or parameters to its parent constructor.

22. The object-oriented techniques to manage errors such as dividing a value by 0 comprise the group of methods known as ____.

23. Methods are flexible partly because they are ____.

24. The memory location known as the ____ is where the computer stores the list of method locations to which the system must return.

25. When appropriate, specialized ____ classes provide an elegant way for you to handle error situations.

 

Coding (5 questions, 10 points each, 50 points total)

Question 1

What is the screen output of the following code segment? Explain the reasoning behind your answer.

Test1 = 70

Test2 = 98

Test3 = 84

NumberOfTests = 3

Average = (Test1 + Test2 + Test3) / NumberOfTests

IF Average >= 90 THEN

Output "Great job"

Output "Your average is: ", Average

ELSE

IF Average >= 80 or Average <=89 THEN

Output "Nice work"

Output "Your average is: ", Average

ELSE

Output "You will better next time!"

ENDIF

 

Question 2

What screen output does the following code segment produce?

p = 2

q = 4

while p < q

Output "Adios"

r = 1

while r < q

output "Adios"

r = r + 1

endwhile

p = p + 1

endwhile

 

Question 3

Design a program that allows a user to enter 10 numbers, then displays them in the reverse order of their entry. You must use an Array as your data structure.

 

Question 4

Design a class named

CustomerRecord that holds a customer number, name, and address. Include methods to set the values for each data field and output the values for each data field. Create the class diagram and write the pseudocode that defines the class.

 

Question 5

Design an application in which you declare an array of five numbers and store five values in the array. Write a try block in which you loop to display each successive element of the array, increasing a subscript by one on each pass through the loop. Assume you are working with a language that automatically creates an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException when a subscript is not correct for an array. Create a catch block that catches the exception if it is generated and displays the message, "Now you've gone too far."

FIN 370 week 3

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:34 PM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

FIN 370 week 3

- 4-6A (Ch. 4) (Cash budget)

- 5-1A. (Compound interest)

- 5-4A. (Present value)

- 5-5A. (Compound annuity)

- 5-6A. (Present value of an annuity)

FIN 370 week 3 5-6A. (Present value o..

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:31 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

5-6A. (Present value of an annuity) What is the present value of the following annuities?

a. $2,500 a year for 10 years discounted back to the present at 7 percent

b. $70 a year for 3 years discounted back to the present at 3 percent

c. $280 a year for 7 years discounted back to the present at 6 percent

d. $500 a year for 10 years discounted back to the present at 10 percent

FIN 370 week 3 5-5A. (Compound annuity)

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:30 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

5-5A. (Compound annuity) What is the accumulated sum of each of the following streams of payments?

a. $500 a year for 10 years compounded annually at 5 percent

b. $100 a year for 5 years compounded annually at 10 percent

c. $35 a year for 7 years compounded annually at 7 percent

d. $25 a year for 3 years compounded annually at 2 percent

FIN 370 week 3 5-4A. (Present value)

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:28 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

5-4A. (Present value) What is the present value of the following future amounts?

a. $800 to be received 10 years from now discounted back to the present at 10 percent

b. $300 to be received 5 years from now discounted back to the present at 5 percent

c. $1,000 to be received 8 years from now discounted back to the present at 3 percent

d. $1,000 to be received 8 years from now discounted back to the present at 20 percent

FIN 370 week 3 5-1A. (Compound inter..

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:24 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

5-1A. (Compound interest) To what amount will the following investments accumulate?

a. $5,000 invested for 10 years at 10 percent compounded annually

b. $8,000 invested for 7 years at 8 percent compounded annually

c. $775 invested for 12 years at 12 percent compounded annually

d. $21,000 invested for 5 years at 5 percent compounded annually

FIN 370 week 3 4-6A (Ch. 4) (Cash b..

Business / Economics

8/23/12

Asked: 8/23/12 4:21 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

4-6A (Ch. 4) (Cash budget) The Sharpe Corporation's projected sales for the first eight months of 2004 are as follows:

January $ 90,000 May $300,000

February 120,000 June 270,000

March 135,000 July 225,000

April 240,000 August 150,000

Of Sharpe's sales, 10 percent is for cash, another 60 percent is collected in the month following sale, and 30 percent is collected in the second month following sale. November and December sales for 2003 were $220,000 and $175,000, respectively.

Sharpe purchases its raw materials two months in advance of its sales equal to 60 percent of their final sales price. The supplier is paid one month after it makes delivery. For example, purchases for April sales are made in February and payment is made in March. In addition, Sharpe pays $10,000 per month for rent and $20,000 each month for other expenditures.

Tax prepayments of $22,500 are made each quarter, beginning in March. The company's cash balance at December 31, 2003, was $22,000; a minimum balance of $15,000 must be maintained at all times.

a. Prepare a cash budget for Crux covering the first seven months of 2004.

b. Crux has $200,000 in notes payable due in July that must be repaid or renegotiated for an extension. Will the firm have ample cash to repay the notes?

RES 341 week 2-3-4-5

Mathematics

8/21/12

Asked: 8/21/12 8:05 PM
Opening Offer: $20.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

RES/341 Week 2 Research Terminology Matching Assignment

 

RES341 week 3- Statistical Symbols and Definitions Matching

 

RES341 week 4 - Chapter 5 E Exercises 5.62 and 5.70

 

RES 341 Week 5

RES 341 Week 5

Mathematics

8/21/12

Asked: 8/21/12 7:32 PM
Opening Offer: $10.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1. In an article in the Journal of Management, Morris, Avila and Allen studied innovation by surveying firms to find the number of new products introduced by the firms. A random sample of 100 California based firms are selected. Each firm is asked to report the number of new products introduced last year. The survey found that on average these firms introduced 5.68 products with a standard deviation of 8.70. Compute a 98% confidence interval for the new products introduced last year.

2. The score on the entrance test for a well known law school has a mean score of 200 points and a standard deviation of 50 points. At value should the lowest passing score be set if the school wishes only 2.5% of those taking the entrance test to pass?

3. A tire manufacturer wishes to investigate the thread life of its tires. A sample of 10 tires driven 50,000 miles revealed a sample mean of 0.32 inches of thread remaining with a standard deviation of 0.09 inches. Construct a 95% confidence interval for the population mean.

RES341 week 4 - Chapter 5 E Exercises..

Mathematics

8/21/12

Asked: 8/21/12 7:31 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

5.62 A certain airplane has two independent alternators to provide electrical power. The probability that a given alternator will fail on a 1-hour flight is .02. What is the probability that

(a) both will fail?

(b) Neither will fail?

(c) One or the other will fail? Show all steps carefully.

 

5.70 The probability is 1 in 4,000,000 that a single auto trip in the United States will result in a fatality. Over a lifetime, an average U.S. driver takes 50,000 trips.

(a) What is the probability of a fatal accident over a lifetime? Explain your reasoning carefully. Hint: Assume independent events. Why might the assumption of independence be violated?

(b) Why might a driver be tempted not to use a seat belt "just on this trip"?

RES341 week 3- Statistical Symbols and..

Mathematics

8/21/12

Asked: 8/21/12 7:29 PM
Opening Offer: $7.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

Match the letter of the definition on the right to the appropriate symbol on the left.

Symbols Definitions

S (Uppercase Sigma) a. Null hypothesis

m (Mu) b. Summation

s (Lowercase Sigma) c. Factorial

p (Pi) d. Nonparametric hypothesis test

e (Epsilon) e. Population standard deviation

c2 (Chi Square) f. Alternate hypothesis

! g. Maximum allowable error

H0 h. Population mean

H1 i. Probability of success in a binomial trial

Match the letter of the term on the right to the definition of that term on the left.

Definitions Terms

The average of the squared deviation scores from a distribution mean. a. Reliability

Midpoint in the distribution of numbers. b. Mode

It has to do with the accuracy and precision of a measurement procedure. c. Generalization

Examines if an observed causal relationship generalizes across persons,

settings, and times. d. Variance

The difference between the largest and smallest score in a distribution. e. Median

The arithmetic average. f. External validity

Refers to the extent to which a test measures what we actually wish to measure.

g. Mean

The most frequently occurring value in a set of numbers. h. Internal validity

The conclusion from research conducted on a sample population to the

population as a whole. i. Range

Examines whether the conclusion that we draw about a demonstrated experimental

relationship truly implies cause. j. Standard deviation

Determines how far away the data values are from the average. k. Validity

RES/341 Week 2 Research Terminology..

Mathematics

8/21/12

Asked: 8/21/12 7:28 PM
Opening Offer: $6.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

A research study which includes repeated observations over a period of time. ____

A type of research that uses focus groups or small studies to get a "feel" for the problem. ____

It means in name only, data that consist of observations that can only be classified and counted by category and have no inherent order. For example: The colors chosen by car buyers at a dealership. ____

Using basic research methods, the outcome of the research is applied to a business problem. ____ A measurement scale that has no meaningful absolute zero point. For example: The scheduled arrival times (2:00pm, 2:30pm, and 3:00pm) of delivery trucks at a loading dock. ____ Often used in marketing and sales, this type of research always asks "who, what, when, where, and how" in research questions. ____

A measurement that uses absolute values. Height, weight, distance, and money are all examples. ____ Numbers assigned to objects representative of the rank order when the distance between each of the measures cannot be determined scientifically. For example, a measure that indicates how a person "feels" on an issue. ____ Research conducted where one unit is held steady, while the experiment is conducted on the other unit. This is to test whether the experiment itself is the reason for change in the experimental unit. ____ The clinical or scientific method of research. This type of research is often done in laboratories or in controlled circumstances. ____ A research question stated in terms of specific testing or measurement criteria. These terms must have empirical referents (this means that we must be able to count or measure them in some way). The object to be defined can be a physical one (a machine tool), or it can be an abstract one (achievement motivation). ____ A research study which uses data collected at a single point in time. This gives a snapshot of what is occurring somewhere at a given time. ____

MAT 540 Strayer University

Mathematics

8/20/12

Asked: 8/20/12 6:02 PM
Opening Offer: $100.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

MAT 540 Strayer University

Quantitative Methods – MAT 540

MAT 540 Quiz 1

MAT 540 Quiz 2

MAT 540 Quiz 3

MAT 540 Quiz 4

MAT 540 Quiz 5

MAT 540 Midterm Quiz

MAT 540 Final Quiz

FIN534 COMPLETE COURSE (ALL CHAPTERS+A..

Business / Economics

8/20/12

Asked: 8/20/12 6:07 AM
Opening Offer: $150.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

FIN 534 ALL Chapters & Quizzes

- FIN 534 – Homework Chapter 1-17

- FIN 534 Quiz 1-10

- solutions with steps

Bcom 275 Final Exam 2

Computers and Technology

8/7/12

Asked: 8/7/12 2:37 PM
Opening Offer: $25.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The term channel in communication means

A. the medium through which a message travels from sender to receiver

B. the context of the communication

C. the volume at which a message is received

D. the process of changing thoughts into symbols

2) In which of the following communication activities do people spend the greatest percent of their day?

A. Listening

B. Writing

C. Reading

D. Speaking

3) A receiver's response to a sender's message is called

A. encoding

B. decoding

C. feedback

D. channel

4) With this type of response, you analyze or teach the sender about the cause of his or her concern.

A. Evaluating

B. Interpreting

C. Paraphrasing

D. Questioning

5) This happens when you receive, construct meaning from, and respond to the sender's message.

A. Responding

B. Attending

C. Listening

D. Hearing

6) When the receiver uses this response style, he clarifies or seeks more information.

A. Evaluating

B. Supporting

C. Paraphrasing

D. Questioning

7) Which of the following are the most common types of doubts people may have about a source?

A. Status and academic degree

B. Expertise and accuracy

C. Occupation and employer

D. Prominence in the field of study and experience

8) Which of the following is the most reliable source of information?

A. Wikipedia®

B. A blog

C. A book recommended by your instructor

D. Britannica Online®

9) Consider the following exchange: "How do I know God exists? How do you know he doesn't?" Which fallacy does the second statement illustrate?

A. Perfectionist fallacy

B. Slippery slope

C. Misplacing the burden of proof

D. Inconsistency ad hominem

10) Stating someone has negative features and his claim is invalid is an example of which fallacy?

A. Genetic fallacy

B. False dilemma

C. Straw man

D. Ad hominem

11) Consider the following statement: "So what if the Senator accepted a little kickback money—most politicians are corrupt after all." This is an example of which fallacy?

A. Argument from envy

B. Argument from tradition

C. Straw man

D. Argument from common practice

12) Consider the following statement: "Studies confirm what everyone already knows: Smaller class sizes make better learners." This is an example of which fallacy?

A. Argument from common practice

B. Begging the question

C. Slippery slope

D. Misplacing the burden of proof

13) Audience analysis should occur at what point in the creation of a message?

A. Once feedback is received

B. Before the message is sent

C. After selecting the channel

D. Before the message is created

14) Behavior descriptions should meet which of the following criteria?

A. Present inferences about another's motives.

B. Focus on more than one behavior.

C. Describe only observable behaviors.

D. Include terms such as "never, always, or constantly."

15) An effective message should be

A. audience-centered

B. topic-based

C. channel-focused

D. time-centered

16) Which informal communication channel involves its own abbreviations to accommodate the limited number of characters available in any given message

A. Text message

B. E-mail

C. Handwritten letters

D. Voicemail message

17) Sound and light waves are an example of which part of the communication model?

A. Noise

B. Encoding

C. Decoding

D. Channel

18) In this channel of communication, messages are carried by sound and light waves.

A. Hard copy memos

B. Teleconference

C. Face-to-face

D. Voicemail

19) A framework for putting all of your information together in a logical sequence is called

A. a central idea

B. a thesis

C. an outline

D. an introduction

20) Which verbal support breaks down complex processes or concepts into their component parts to ensure understanding?

A. Comparisons

B. Analyses

C. Definitions

D. Descriptions

21) What type of language is used when communicating with classmates, coworkers, family, and friends?

A. Official

B. Informal

C. Ceremonial

D. Formal

22) The connotation of words such as skinny or thin focuses on the

A. emotional meaning

B. denotative meaning

C. contextual meaning

D. actual meaning

23) If you try to persuade your classmates to donate canned goods for the hungry in your community, your topic is one of

A. policy

B. fact

C. pathos

D. value

24) Persuasive topics that attempt to show an audience that something is good, bad, right, or wrong are topics of

A. value

B. policy

C. fact

D. cause-effect

25) If you use only a few examples to represent the whole of the conclusion, you are committing this logical fallacy.

A. Faulty causation

B. Hasty generalization

C. Either/or thinking

D. Slippery slope

26) What logical fallacy can occur when a speaker focuses on similarities and ignores significant differences?

A. Either/or thinking

B. Slippery slope

C. Hasty generalization

D. Faulty comparison

27) When you display ethos in your persuasive presentation, you have

A. credibility

B. logic

C. emotion

D. evidence

28) Developing cross-cultural competence includes which of the following?

A. Overcoming personal biases

B. Walking on eggs

C. Using hot button words

D. Separating culture from communication

29) An attempt to characterize causes of events to either personalities or external situations is called

A. projection

B. halo effect

C. attribution error

D. selective attention

30) Groups that value higher power distance believe relationships are

A. hierarchical

B. informal

C. individualist

D. relationship oriented

31) What is the belief that laws are justified if they prevent a person from harming him- or herself known as?

A. Harm principle

B. Legal moralism

C. Offense principle

D. Legal paternalism

32) What is the belief that correct moral principles are those accepted by the correct religion known as?

A. Virtue ethics

B. Religious absolutism

C. Religious relativism

D. Moral relativism

33) The practice of using a case that has already been decided as a guide when deciding new cases is referred to as

A. legal morality

B. legal paternalism

C. causation principle

D. appeal to precedent

MGT 307 Final Exam

Business / Economics

8/7/12

Asked: 8/7/12 8:49 AM
Opening Offer: $27.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.

A. Organizational behavior

B. Motivation

C. Performance management

D. Workgroup analysis

2) What is organizational culture?

A. The predominant cultural background represented by the organization's members

B. How an organization appears to external and internal stakeholders

C. The shared beliefs, actions, and values within an organization

D. The way an organization operates within the geographic region

3) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are

A. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences

B. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission

C. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions

D. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions

4) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

A. shared values

B. observable culture

C. rituals

D. common assumptions

5) Henry Mintzberg identified a set of roles that managers perform. These roles are grouped into which of the following three categories?

A. Interpersonal, strategic, and decisional

B. Strategic, informational, and political

C. Interpersonal, informational, and decisional

D. Supervisory, authoritarian, and decisional

6) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people.

A. team member

B. human resources director

C. change agent

D. manager or team leader

7) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to

A. geographic differences

B. language differences

C. religious differences

D. lifestyle differences

8) __________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.

A. Ethnocentrism

B. Proxemics

C. Kinesics

D. Parochialism

9) Groups and teams are not the same thing because of differences in goals, synergy, accountability and skills. A work team is characterized by

A. sharing information as a goal

B. random and varied skills

C. individual and mutual accountability

D. neutral synergy

10) Four contextual factors are most significantly related to team performance and whether or not they are successful. They are adequate resources, leadership and structure, performance evaluation and reward systems, and

A. abilities of members

B. size of teams

C. climate of trust

D. diversity of members

11) Groups generally pass through a predictable sequence in their evolution. The five-stage group-development model describes which stage as being characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership?

A. Storming

B. Forming

C. Norming

D. Adjourning

12) Which of the following distinguishes a team from a group?

A. Members are accountable to one another.

B. Members are assigned to one person: the leader.

C. Members do not have a clear stable culture and conflict is frequent.

D. Members may accomplish their goals.

13) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

A. Avoidance

B. Competition

C. Accommodation

D. Compromise

14) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone's concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.

A. avoidance

B. accommodation

C. compromise

D. collaboration

15) Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's theoretical hierarchal needs from the lowest (lower-order need) to the highest (higher-order need) level?

A. Safety, social, physiological, esteem, and self-actualization

B. Social, esteem, self-actualization, physiological, and safety

C. Physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization

D. Physiological, social, safety, self-actualization, and esteem

16) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to

A. the length of time a person sticks with a given action

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth

C. an individual's choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives

D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy

17) In the context of motivation, intensity refers to

A. the length of time a person sticks with a given action

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth

C. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy

D. the consequences of an individual's behavior

18) Compared to other types of teams, __________ teams tend to have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems in the early stages of team development.

A. problem-solving

B. heterogeneous

C. virtual

D. homogeneous

19) __________ implies that characteristics such as age or the date that someone joins a specific work team or organization should help us to predict turnover.

A. Allocation of roles

B. Social loafing

C. Groupshift

D. Organizational demography

20) __________ factors that could potentially cause stress include things such as economic or political uncertainty and technological change.

A. Environmental

B. Personal

C. Resource

D. Organizational

21) __________ stressors are stressors that keep you from achieving your goals, such as red tape, organizational politics, or confusion over responsibilities.

A. Challenge

B. Hindrance

C. Organizational

D. Personal

22) If a worker is placed on a difficult project and they experience eustress, one likely result would include

A. job burnout

B. hypertension

C. greater diligence

D. a successful project

23) __________ is often used in combination with horizontal leadership.

A. Power negotiation

B. Organizational goal setting

C. Shared leadership

D. Individual leadership

24) Often self-leadership activities are divided into these three broad categories:

A. behavior focused, natural reward, and constructive thought pattern strategies

B. cognitive, behavior, and emotional strategies

C. focus, ambiguous, and unfocused strategies

D. bottom-up, top-down, and middle strategies

25) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are

A. subjected to slight scrutiny

B. rejected

C. obeyed

D. subjected to severe scrutiny

26) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people

A. learn from personal failures

B. obey the commands of an authority figure

C. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence

D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

27) The essence of power is

A. personal desire

B. a distinguished reputation

C. control over the behavior of others

D. having a Machiavellian personality

28) The development of a cohesive, high-performing team can be aided by

A. individual performance evaluations and incentives

B. ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum

C. system modifications that reinforce team effort and commitment

D. allowing the team to develop their own values and purpose

29) One of the foremost trends in management involves using __________ to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.

A. reengineering techniques

B. just-in-time inventory control

C. information technology

D. total quality management

30) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.

A. mechanistic

B. organic

C. bureaucratic

D. centralized

FIN 534 ENTIRE CLASS ALL CHAPTERS + AL..

Business / Economics

8/4/12

Asked: 8/4/12 3:24 AM
Opening Offer: $130.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

FIN 534 ENTIRE CLASS ALL CHAPTERS + ALL QUIZZES GUARANTEED A+

QNT 351 Final Exam

Business / Economics

7/31/12

Asked: 7/31/12 1:53 PM
Opening Offer: $27.00
Due Date: 12/31/69

1) The main purpose of descriptive statistics is to

A. summarize data in a useful and informative manner

B. make inferences about a population

C. determine if the data adequately represents the population

D. gather or collect data

2) The general process of gathering, organizing, summarizing, analyzing, and interpreting data is called

A. statistics

B. descriptive statistics

C. inferential statistics

D. levels of measurement

3) The performance of personal and business investments is measured as a percentage, return on investment. What type of variable is return on investment?

A. Qualitative

B. Continuous

C. Attribute

D. Discrete

4) What type of variable is the number of robberies reported in your city?

A. Attribute

B. Continuous

C. Discrete

D. Qualitative

5) What level of measurement is the number of auto accidents reported in a given month?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

6) The names of the positions in a corporation, such as chief operating officer or controller, are examples of what level of measurement?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

7) Shoe sizes, such as 7B, 10D, and 12EEE, are examples of what level of measurement?

A. Nominal

B. Ordinal

C. Interval

D. Ratio

8) Monthly commissions of first-year insurance brokers are $1,270, $1,310, $1,680, $1,380, $1,410, $1,570, $1,180, and $1,420. These figures are referred to as

A. a histogram

B. raw data

C. frequency distribution

D. frequency polygon

9) A small sample of computer operators shows monthly incomes of $1,950, $1,775, $2,060, $1,840, $1,795, $1,890, $1,925, and $1,810. What are these ungrouped numbers called?

A. Histogram

B. Class limits

C. Class frequencies

D. Raw data

10) The sum of the deviations of each data value from this measure of central location will always be 0

A. Mode

B. Mean

C. Median

D. Standard deviation

11) For any data set, which measures of central location have only one value?

A. Mode and median

B. Mode and mean

C. Mode and standard deviation

D. Mean and median

12) A sample of single persons receiving social security payments revealed these monthly benefits: $826, $699, $1,087, $880, $839, and $965. How many observations are below the median?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

13) A dot plot shows

A. the general shape of a distribution

B. the mean, median, and mode

C. the relationship between two variables

D. the interquartile range

14) The test scores for a class of 147 students are computed. What is the location of the test score associated with the third quartile?

A. 111

B. 37

C. 74

D. 75%

15) The National Center for Health Statistics reported that of every 883 deaths in recent years, 24 resulted from an automobile accident, 182 from cancer, and 333 from heart disease. Using the relative frequency approach, what is the probability that a particular death is due to an automobile accident?

A. 24/883 or 0.027

B. 539/883 or 0.610

C. 24/333 or 0.072

D. 182/883 or 0.206

16) If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, what does the special rule of addition state?

A. P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)

B. P(A and B) = P(A) + P(B)

C. P(A and/or B) = P(A) + P(B)

D. P(A or B) = P(A) - P(B)

17) A listing of all possible outcomes of an experiment and their corresponding probability of occurrence is called a

A. random variable

B. probability distribution

C. subjective probability

D. frequency distribution

18) The shape of any uniform probability distribution is

A. negatively skewed

B. positively skewed

C. rectangular

D. bell shaped

19) The mean of any uniform probability distribution is

A. (b - a)/2

B. (a + b)/2

C. Σ x/ η

D. nπ

20) For the normal distribution, the mean plus and minus 1.96 standard deviations will include about what percent of the observations?

A. 50%

B. 99.7%

C. 95%

D. 68%

21) For a standard normal distribution, what is the probability that z is greater than 1.75?

A. 0.0401

B. 0.0459

C. 0.4599

D. 0.9599

22) A null hypothesis makes a claim about a

A. A null hypothesis makes a claim about a

B. sample statistic

C. sample mean

D. Type II error

23) What is the level of significance?

A. Probability of a Type II error

B. Probability of a Type I error

C. z-value of 1.96

D. Beta error

24) Suppose we test the difference between two proportions at the 0.05 level of significance. If the computed z is -1.07, what is our decision?

A. Reject the null hypothesis

B. Do not reject the null hypothesis

C. Take a larger sample

D. Reserve judgment

25) Which of the following conditions must be met to conduct a test for the difference in two sample means?

A. Data must be at least of interval scale

B. Populations must be normal

C. Variances in the two populations must be equal

D. Data must be at least of interval scale and populations must be normal

26) Which of the following statements about the two sample sizes is NOT true? Assume the population standard deviations are equal.

A. Sample A = 11; sample B = 13

B. Sample A = 12; sample B = 14

C. Sample A = 13; sample B = 13

D. Sample A = 10; sample B = 16

27) What is the chart called when the paired data (the dependent and independent variables) are plotted?

A. Scatter diagram

B. Bar chart

C. Pie chart

D. Histogram

28) What is the variable used to predict the value of another called?

A. Independent variable

B. Dependent variable

C. Correlation variable

D. Variable of determination

29) Twenty randomly selected statistics students were given 15 multiple-choice questions and 15 open-ended questions, all on the same material. The professor was interested in determining on which type of questions the students scored higher. This experiment is an example of

A. a one sample test of means

B. a two sample test of means

C. a paired t-test

D. a test of proportions

30) The measurements of weight of 100 units of a product manufactured by two parallel processes have same mean but the standard of process A is 15 while that of B is 7. What can you conclude?

A. The weight of units in process A are grouped closer than in process B

B. The weight of units in process B are grouped closer than in process A

C. Both processes are out of control

D. More data is needed to draw a conclusion

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